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2007-07-05 21:55:33 · 4 answers · asked by Anonymous in Education & Reference Words & Wordplay

4 answers

It is, just like "telephone".

2007-07-05 23:43:01 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 1 1

I do get the joke, but maybe you'll still find this explanation of some value.

Actually, the word is spelled more phonetically than most realize.

In particular, the "ph" is a long-recognized representation of the f-sound. Specifically, it is a "digraph" -- or set of two letters used to represent one sound. Other standard digraphs in English are "ch", "sh" and "th".
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Digraph_(orthography)
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/H#Value

Why "ph"? English borrowed it for Greek words borrowed through Latin.

The GREEKS invented this combination and others to represent sounds in their language not found in the Semitic alphabet they had borrowed from Phoenician traders. (Note that the sound /f/ is a relative of /p/, formed at the same point in the mouth, but rather than 'stopping' the airflow, as p does, some air is allowed to escape. The h in digraphs --including th, sh, ch [and at one time gh]-- all indicate this sort of behavior. )

The Romans adopted this practice for words borrowed from Greek into Latin. Later the Greeks invented some NEW letters, including one for this sound ("phi"), But Latin, rather than adding the new letters, stuck with the old practice
http://www.etymonline.com/index.php?l=h

At any rate, whenever the "ph" combination is used in Latin and other languages (like English) which picked up these Greek words, it has the /f/ value. As consistent as this is, it's fair to say it is phonetic. Also, this "historical orthography [=spelling]" enables us to recognize words of Greek origin.
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/English_words_of_Greek_origin#The_written_form_of_Greek_words_in_English


As for the final "c" with the sound /k/. Actually, this (like the "ph") is one of the ORIGINAL sounds represented by the Latin letter "c" (The "soft c", with an /s/ sound developed much later, and only is specific places. A FINAL 'c' is ALWAYS pronounced /k/.)

2007-07-07 11:18:05 · answer #2 · answered by bruhaha 7 · 0 1

Isn't that ironic?

2007-07-06 05:18:54 · answer #3 · answered by Redeemer 5 · 0 0

I don't know. It doesn't make any ph*^king sense!

2007-07-06 07:47:36 · answer #4 · answered by toby 5 · 0 1

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