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The house is paid for and in his name. Does she have any rights to the house once they are married, if they were to get divorced in a year? An atty is telling him she wouldn't have any ownership of the home.......I disagree. Any atty's know the answer??? I know every state is different, this is Ohio! Thanks!

2007-07-05 11:20:20 · 9 answers · asked by noodle 3 in Politics & Government Law & Ethics

9 answers

if they have been married less than 7 years, she would have no claim to any assets he possessed prior to the marriage

2007-07-05 11:33:26 · answer #1 · answered by Anarchy99 7 · 0 0

Property owned by one party before the marriage is not considered "marital property". Marital property, which is divided in a divorce, generally includes:

-A home if purchased with earnings of either or both parties during the marriage.
-A pension plan, to the extent accrued during the marriage.
-A bank or financial account, if built during the marriage with funds earned during the marriage by either party.
-Increases in value of separate property due to the labor, monetary contributions, or other contributions of the parties during the marriage
-A participant account (a deferred compensation plan for certain Ohio public employees), and any income derived from the investment of this money during the marriage.

Section 3105.171(A)(3).

2007-07-05 11:27:45 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

if he owns it out right she has no right but if she helps to pay the mortgage while they are married she has a finical interest in it. she has right to all that she helped pay or maybe even the house. also if someone inherits something during a marriage Ohio is a community property state the suppose is entitled to half

2007-07-05 11:40:56 · answer #3 · answered by Big Daddy R 7 · 0 0

This verse is part of a larger passage where Paul is discussing the care of widows and orphans within the church. The church was being inundated with claims for care by poor widows, and Paul was saying that before the church took on responsibility for the needy, the extended family should provide for them. They should not escape their God-given family duties by saying "it is the church's job." If it were applied to the Body of Christ, I think Paul would have used language about caring for the whole body. But I also think it was more than just directed to husbands-it was directed to anyone who had someone for whom they were responsible. Paul combined personal responsibility--of family members--with corporate responsibility--what the church owed to widows and orphans. In first-century Asia Minor, this was a truly revolutionary teaching.

2016-05-19 01:35:59 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

If the house is paid for and in his name prior to the marriage, she has no claim. She needs to get her name on the deed in order to have any claim on the home.

2007-07-05 11:26:47 · answer #5 · answered by Goose&Tonic 6 · 0 0

She would have no legal claim to the house or any other assets he had prior to their marriage. She would be entitled to half of what is earned during the marriage.

2007-07-05 11:24:38 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

The only assets the woman has a right to are those that were acquired AFTER marriage. Anything he own BEFORE marriage are his alone, unless after the marriage her name was added to the deed.

She has no rights to the home at all. It is HIS home bought BEFORE marriage......

2007-07-05 11:25:30 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 1 0

well i live in NY but my parents are going through a divorce right now and since my mom doesn't have her name any where in the papers for the house she legally has no right to our house even though she was dating my father at the time they bought it

2007-07-05 11:29:15 · answer #8 · answered by Sam 3 · 1 0

If she is willing to sign a sworn document waiving all rights to any part of her husband's property in the event of divorce, that should do it. A pre-nuptial agreement

2007-07-05 11:24:54 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

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