Even if this person has no history of violence?
2007-07-05 10:24:55 · 4 answers · asked by CMDS 2 in Politics & Government ➔ Law & Ethics
But what defines mental illness? If a person has depression or anxiety, is that mental illness? Also, if a person was misdiagnosed when he or she was a child, is that a bar?
2007-07-05 10:33:27 · update #1
You should call the A.T.F. or F.B.I. to check into tht they might beteer assist you with this question.
2007-07-05 10:39:08 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 1⤋
No, it's a matter of being adjudged "a danger to self or others," not all psychiatric ills, and it doesn't require a history, just a reasonable likelihood of future action. The field is actually quite open to governmental abuse, so it's best if you're a depressed gun owner to know a psychiatrist who's a member of the NRA.
2007-07-05 17:34:23 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Just for a psych record, no. A history of mental illness is a bar to ownership, however, even if there is no history of violence.
2007-07-05 17:28:48 · answer #3 · answered by Bostonian In MO 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
It's according whether he's been cured or not. If not then it is against the law to own much less carry a gun.
2007-07-05 19:09:08 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋