I think you a little paranoid.
2007-07-05 05:17:49
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answer #1
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answered by redneck 1
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In response to a few posters above, the fact that the words "separation of church and state" do not appear literally in the Constitution to no reason to interpret the Establishment Clause according to its available legislative history. Reading the Constitution and taking everything in there that you see literally but doing nothing more than that is not the way the judges and the rest of us should interpret the Constitution -- or any other legal document. Maybe you have already read Everson v. Board of Education, 1947. And maybe you reject what was said about the history of religious persecution in Europe and as that persecution continued in the American colonies. I have read Everson, and I am satisfied that the words "separation of" etc. are validly understood as part of the First Amendment's legislative history.
The only point becomes, in my view, how do the words "separation of church and state" become interpreted with logical legal reasoning? How do those words become interpreted given the behavior of our federal and state governments in the last 200 years?
But I also agree with the first few posters here that the person asking the question is only imagining that our federal and state governments are already TOO "caught up in church business" and are TOO enmeshed. Overimagining. And I would like to ask the original asker this question: If the U.S. Government is as caught up as you claim it is and "decisions are made according to the bible," then how in the HECK do you explain the fact that 4 years ago the U.S. Supreme Court declared that "sodomy laws" are UNconstitutional???
~~~
Brain, I broke the Missouri law many, many times during the years I lived there. For around 20 years. No, I wasn't scared of anything -- i.e., of getting caught.
2007-07-05 05:40:07
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answer #2
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answered by Anonymous
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Separation of church and state is not in any official document, as many assume that it is. The phrase was used by Thomas Jefferson in a letter which he wrote from France. This was after the constitution had already been established. The purpose of the letter was to defend some baptist preachers, who were apparently having their rights to practice infringed by the episcopal hierarchy. That is it! No one even ever used the phrase again in a legal setting until sometime mid 1900s. We have passed laws that make it illegal for kids in school to bow their heads and say a little prayer before they eat lunch. Everwhere you go, they are allowing the symbols of other religions to be displayed, but barring the cross, nativity, etc. They are teaching whole courses in public schools about Islam. But try to even breath the word Christ. And all this over a phrase that Jefferson was merely using to say that one group had as much right to practice as another.
2007-07-05 16:30:05
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answer #3
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answered by mel1026 3
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They're pretty separate already. Religion and government are separate institutions, but sometimes they must deal with one another. I think you're taking 'separation of church and state' doctrine a little too literally. You only need to look at European history for the past five hundred years to get an idea of what the Founders actually intended. There is no state church, the church doesn't sanction our rulers by divine right - they're elected - and there's no law forcing anyone to practice or not practice a certain religion.
2007-07-05 05:17:54
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answer #4
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answered by TheOrange Evil 7
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What is stated in the Constitution is that the State (our government) can NOT order us to worship one religion or another.. Nor can they Force one to attend a church...Nor can they base whether someone can run for Official office on his/her religious (or lack of) affiliation.
It means YOU have the RIGHT to believe that the rest of us are brainwashed ... & not having our faith crammed down your throat by the government .. It ALSO means.. we have the same RIGHT.. to NOT have your non-belief crammed down our throats by the government. When this country was founded.. it WAS on Christian values. However these people no longer want to be persecuted for having a difference in their belief (or in some cases.. non belief)
And that MY DEAR is what Our UNITED STATES CONSTITUTION meant. Thank you & Have a wonderful day!
2007-07-05 08:53:23
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answer #5
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answered by darkness breeds 5
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Because if you look at the actual Constitution, no where in the entire document is "Seperation of Church and State" uttered. It is a myth that the two have to be seperated. We have freedom of religion, and there is a clause stating "Congress shall enact no law establishing a state religion". Other than Congress making a law stating you have to practice a certain religion, there is no seperation.
2007-07-05 05:24:49
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answer #6
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answered by Danny77573 2
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You want an example!
Bush does not believe in stem cell research! His religious beliefs against abortion, deter his ability to make logical decisions on this subject! When a leader's religious convictions hinder the research departments, and deny them the critical means (stem cells), how can they therefore find a cure for Alzheimers Disease, or find a cure for back injuries, or Parkinson's ?
If there are abortions, and the termination of the pregnancy, renders TISSUE, their definition, not mine, why then not use the material for some good!
I dislike abortions, especially when used as birth control, but at least let something useful come from those wasted lives!
WE NEED separation of Church and State! There is no place for religion in government!
2007-07-05 05:54:46
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answer #7
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answered by jaded 4
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There is nothing in the Constitution about separation of Church and State. There is an "Establishment " Clause so the Gov't can't mandate a state religion. Everyone uses their "faith" daily to make decisions... you really should READ the Constitution instead of being "told" what it says....
2007-07-05 05:24:17
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answer #8
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answered by Cookies Anyone? 5
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The founding fathers recognized a "Divine Being" and even put that phrase in the Declaration of Independence.
Many of our laws and customs come from our Judeo-christian heritage, as set forth by the Talmud and the old testament.
BTW, there is no separation of church and state clause in the constitution. Jefferson is the only one to make mention of it, and that was in a letter he penned to a church.
2007-07-05 05:42:05
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answer #9
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answered by Mark A 6
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Are talking about separation of church and state?
This is a myth! It doesn't exist. Its not in the Constitution, or the Bill of Rights. This is a judeo Christian society based on Judeo Christian beleifs. Please show me where it says Seperation of church and state, or anything of the sort!
By the way, when you get tired of looking for it, let me know and I'll tell you where this myth came from.
2007-07-05 05:26:14
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answer #10
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answered by Brian 2
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No separation of church and state, sorry.
Brian- I know you were joking, lol, bet you didn't see that coming? Lol..
windbagmama- The name is fitting. It amazes me how some will turn a unbias political question into a Bush hating rant. Wow.
2007-07-05 06:54:35
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answer #11
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answered by Nacho 2
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