English Deutsch Français Italiano Español Português 繁體中文 Bahasa Indonesia Tiếng Việt ภาษาไทย
All categories

4 answers

Let the cost price be X. As per the information given, the loss increases by 20%, i.e. by a factor of 1.2

1.2 (x - 400) = x - 380

1.2x - 480 = x - 380

1.2 x - x = 480 - 380

0.2 x = 100

x = 100 / 0.2 = 500

With the selling price of 400, the loss is 500 - 400 / 500 = 100 / 500 = 20%

With the selling price of 380, the loss becomes 120/500 = 24% which is 20% more than 20%.

So, our solution is correct.

2007-07-04 04:53:32 · answer #1 · answered by Swamy 7 · 0 0

£500. As £20 increases his loss by 20%, then the original loss must have been £100. Therefore you get the cost price by adding the original loss to the original price (or the total loss of £120 to the new selling price) and ta-da £500 is the cost price....

2007-07-04 11:50:12 · answer #2 · answered by eriverpipe 7 · 0 0

COST IS 475/- ON WHICH 20% IS 95/- THEREFORE 475-95 = 380/-

2007-07-04 12:01:02 · answer #3 · answered by G R 1 · 0 1

off the top of my head I can say $500

2007-07-04 12:44:31 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

fedest.com, questions and answers