If it does, would you be 0 for 1?
2007-07-04 02:04:39 · 12 answers · asked by eagles12winning 2 in Sports ➔ Baseball
Yes it does. It counts as a time at bat without a hit.
2007-07-04 02:09:59 · answer #1 · answered by Pat S 6 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Correct, it counts as an at bat, and if it is your first at bat, you are 0 for 1.
2007-07-04 10:57:12 · answer #2 · answered by adam 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Yes , it would count as an bat appearnace.
Just FYI about Josh's answer. It is not the Umpires decision
if the play is a hit or an error. It is the ruling of the offical scorer to determine if it is hit or error.
2007-07-04 10:57:23 · answer #3 · answered by search4knowledge 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
you would be 0-1
2007-07-04 09:11:28 · answer #4 · answered by dave51_1998 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
It does, and yes it is 0 for 1.
2007-07-04 09:47:38 · answer #5 · answered by lsutigerfan123 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Yes it counts as an at bat. If it was your first official at bat, you'd be 0-1. So it will lower your batting average, but increase your on base percentage.
2007-07-04 09:10:25 · answer #6 · answered by Aimers 2 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Yes it is an offical time at bat, but not counted as a hit
2007-07-04 21:17:48 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Yes, it counts as an at bat. You would not have reached base on your own merit, but by the error in the field.
2007-07-04 14:48:22 · answer #8 · answered by Jeff S 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
it counts as an at bat but not as a hit
2007-07-05 22:38:13 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
it is the umpires discretion to rule it a hit or an error so it depends but if it is an error i you would be 0-1
2007-07-04 09:11:43 · answer #10 · answered by Josh W 1 · 0⤊ 1⤋