i believe that this should be answered in "philosophy",as
distinct from math.
Now let me word this carefully: If the above is true-that higher
arithmetic can never be rational like 1+1=2, -there must be
"a Change-over",where the lower-becomes-the higher(!)
An example in math would be the change from mathematical
terms to metamathematical terms.
Im interested in what,if any, has Godel's proof in philosophy
and thus science,et al.
2007-07-02
20:48:15
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2 answers
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asked by
peter m
6
in
Arts & Humanities
➔ Philosophy