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i believe that this should be answered in "philosophy",as
distinct from math.
Now let me word this carefully: If the above is true-that higher
arithmetic can never be rational like 1+1=2, -there must be
"a Change-over",where the lower-becomes-the higher(!)
An example in math would be the change from mathematical
terms to metamathematical terms.
Im interested in what,if any, has Godel's proof in philosophy
and thus science,et al.

2007-07-02 20:48:15 · 2 answers · asked by peter m 6 in Arts & Humanities Philosophy

2 answers

Godel's mind was so far out there he explored concepts that went way beyond our current ability to conceptualize and accept as rational. It is no surprise that any cutting edge scientist or theoretician would eventually end up looking at philosophy as a means to continue their search for the truth

2007-07-04 10:39:11 · answer #1 · answered by ZebraFoxFire 4 · 0 1

Gödel's incompleteness theorem is a bit more sophisticated than you let on-- I'd recommend Nagel's (brief) book on the subject as a good starting point, if you are really interested.

Jacques Derrida has referred to Gödel's theorem in his work on Husserl, where undecidability becomes (by analogy) a key wedge. Gödel has definitely left a mark on philosophy.

2007-07-03 12:08:24 · answer #2 · answered by Michael_Dorfman 3 · 1 1

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