English Deutsch Français Italiano Español Português 繁體中文 Bahasa Indonesia Tiếng Việt ภาษาไทย
All categories

i know its an improper integral, but i ended up with:

lim ln 1 - ln a (as a approaches zero)

and i'm pretty sure that doesn't exist. help?

2007-07-02 12:21:19 · 3 answers · asked by Kaila G 3 in Science & Mathematics Mathematics

3 answers

continuing the expression yields ln (1/a); so as a approaches zero, the ln approaches infinity, therefore integral does not exist

2007-07-02 12:41:05 · answer #1 · answered by fjblume2000 2 · 2 0

Hey there!

You are right. The real value of ln 0 is - infinity. So the improper integral will diverge, as the limit approaches infinity. So the limit does not exist.

Hope it helps!

2007-07-02 12:59:51 · answer #2 · answered by ? 6 · 0 0

You are right. ln(0) is undefined, so the integral from 0 to1 is undefined.

2007-07-02 12:29:17 · answer #3 · answered by ironduke8159 7 · 3 0

fedest.com, questions and answers