or more assets if the other spouse cheated?
2007-07-02 07:21:13 · 9 answers · asked by Anonymous in Family & Relationships ➔ Marriage & Divorce
It has to do with the revenge that one of the spouse seeks. It also matters because it muddies up the water and some judges being human pay attention.
Society tends to want to protect the victim, so claiming stuff seems to help. Most judge have heard all it before and will ignore it. It is also a Hollywood reality show syndrome.
In the old days, it did matter a lot and that is why no-fault divorces were put into place to get rid of the abuses of trickery and lies. The no fault divorce need to be extended to child support, alimony and legal fees. Then again how will the lawyers cheat you out of an honest dollar!
2007-07-02 07:29:58 · answer #1 · answered by amadha0719 2 · 0⤊ 1⤋
The cause of the divorce is not related to that amount of alimony or the marital assets that will be awarded in the case. The amount awarded is up to the judge in the end, but if the two lawyers can come up with an agreement between the husband and wife, the judge almost always agrees to the terms. Cheating can be used in a custody battle, as well as drinking problems, drugs, and other behavioral issues that could be shown to be a potential danger to the children, but alimony and assets should not be determined based on the reason, unless there was a pre-nuptial agreement.
2007-07-02 14:28:14 · answer #2 · answered by Suthern R 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
It depends on the state. With the no-fault divorce laws it doesn't really matter in most states why divorce is being filed. Alimony often depends on the length of the relationship working status of both people (did the woman stay at home? then she often gets alimony).
But I do know in Texas (from experience) that you can file for dicorce with adultry as a reason, and with enough proof you would be able to fight for a larger portion of combined assests.
2007-07-02 16:16:56 · answer #3 · answered by Nristow 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
If the courts don't award more alimony then they should just for all the pain he/she has put everyone through.Let that person feel what it's like to hurt every single day for what he or she has done.
2007-07-03 21:18:38 · answer #4 · answered by Teenie 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Infidelity is no longer considered grounds for divorce, there is no advantage in proving it and one does not get anymore in alimony.
2007-07-02 15:35:41 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Michigan is a no fault state BUT, if you can PROVE infadelity you ARE awarded more of EVERYTHING.
You will need to specify which state you are in if you want accurate info about your state
2007-07-02 14:41:54 · answer #6 · answered by JayneDoe 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
No BUT.... it depends on what state you live in and how long you were married.
2007-07-02 14:26:04 · answer #7 · answered by kim t 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
well in texas there is no fault divorce and i dont' have the foggest.
2007-07-05 22:59:42 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
I really don't think it will matter either way.
2007-07-02 14:24:38 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋