A friend of mine takes a shower at 7 AM on Friday and goes away for the weekend. She take a shower again until 7 AM Sunday. Am I wrong, or did she not take a shower for two days?
She insists that since she showered on Sunday and Friday, and only missed one day in between, that she didn't shower for one day. The way I see it, there was 48 hours in between - so that's two days.
Who's right, and who's dirty?
2007-06-30 13:38:35 · 33 answers · asked by MentalCaseMaggot 5 in Entertainment & Music ➔ Polls & Surveys
Ok, she took a shower on Friday morning so she covered the DAY time of Friday. Assuming we dont shower in the evenings, she has to shower on Saturday at 7am.
Which she skipped, so she is dirty on the DAY time of Saturday till next 7am.
Apparently she took a shower on Sunday 7am . So she was dirty for 2 nights and 1 day!
Basically the day she took shower gets exculded because, she doesnt get called dirty till after 24hrs after that shower!
So I guess she is right, she didnt shower for one day.
Lemme give u an example. If you are in Boston and visit NewYork and then Cincinatti, you have visited only 2 cities! Because since you started from Boston, thats excluded from the count!! Something like the ZERO you have in a measuring scale.
.:Fishie:.
2007-07-01 15:13:07 · answer #1 · answered by Fishie 5 · 4⤊ 1⤋
Guess what, you're both right. She takes a shower on Friday. Friday is covered. No shower on Saturday. Shower on Sunday, Sunday is covered. One day no shower, 48 hours in between. And unless she's some sweaty little skank, she's probably just fine.
2007-06-30 13:43:09 · answer #2 · answered by Captain Happy Pants 6 · 1⤊ 1⤋
She missed only 1 shower; the one she didn't take at 7 AM on Saturday.
2007-06-30 13:47:47 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
Technically it is 48 hours but if she only showers at 7 AM then that is only missing one shower. But I am betting that she got dirty between the two showers.
I know a lot of people that go this long, many even longer, without washing their hair. They just get in lather up and get out. Too much shampooing strips the hair of its natural moisture...
2007-06-30 13:43:47 · answer #4 · answered by terripoe82 3 · 0⤊ 2⤋
2 days
2007-06-30 13:41:24 · answer #5 · answered by pjsancha 3 · 1⤊ 2⤋
she went 1 day without showering
the 7am on the friday should not be inclouded when counting if ur seeing in between. plus u cannot count the sunday either beccause she did bathe on the sunday right
look at wat i am really saying please. so take away the fri and sun then u got 1 day rigght.
but if ur to say '' how many days aare there from fri to sun it would have been 2 days ok.
2007-07-08 10:58:38 · answer #6 · answered by *Stranger in Jamaica* 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
You're both right. There IS one day in between, since the average person takes a shower every morning, etc. So, she's right in that matter. But TECHNICALLY, the keyword is TECHNICALLY; you're right. Because there are exactly 48 hours in-between, making it 2 days exactly. But most people take a shower "every day" as in, every morning; so she's only missing one day; which is right, in basic terms.
2007-06-30 13:42:46 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 2⤊ 2⤋
ok, read this very slowly...
1. Friday: shower
2. Saturday: no shower
3. Sunday: shower
looks like only one non-showering day to me
2007-07-08 09:48:40 · answer #8 · answered by Malgal 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
2 days.
2007-07-08 12:19:17 · answer #9 · answered by Judas Rabbi 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
It is two days or 48 hours
because from 7 AM Friday and 7AM saturday is one day Saturday to Sunday is another.
2007-06-30 13:42:34 · answer #10 · answered by F. 2 · 0⤊ 2⤋