Does he get credited with a no-hitter or perfect game?
2007-06-29 04:49:52 · 15 answers · asked by marcecore 1 in Sports ➔ Baseball
Technically yes, but it would be an asterisked (*) one, stating it was only 6 innings.
2007-06-29 04:53:18 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 2⤋
Last year on the last day of the season, the Red Sox and Orioles were playing. Pitcher Devern Hansack had a no-hitter through six, before the game was called, due to rain. Six innings is a complete game, but you need to pitch the whole 9-inning game and extras with a no-hitter/perfect game to get credit for it.
Hansack was credited with a complete game, and no no-hitter.
2007-06-29 12:11:17 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
"Dean Chance actually threw a 5 or 6 inning no-hitter in. . .1965?"
Dean Chance never pitched a no-hitter for the Angels (sigh!), although he won the Cy Young Award while with them. After he was traded to the Twins in 1967, he pitched a five-inning "perfect" game on August 6, 1967 and a no-hitter on August 25, 1967. Of course, he lost to Jim Lonborg and the Red Sox on the last day of the season, costing the Twins the pennent.
2007-06-29 15:33:25 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
No he doesnt. It happened last year in the last game of the season for the Red Sox when Devern Hansack threw five hitless innings before play was called due to rain. He did not get credited with a no-hitter.
2007-06-29 12:22:14 · answer #4 · answered by Red Sox lover 6 · 1⤊ 0⤋
According to MLB rules:
An official perfect game occurs when a pitcher (or pitchers) retires each batter on the opposing team during the entire course of a game, which consists of at least nine innings. In a perfect game, no batter reaches any base during the course of the game.
An official no-hit game occurs when a pitcher (or pitchers) allows no hits during the entire course of a game, which consists of at least nine innings. In a no-hit game, a batter may reach base via a walk, an error, a hit by pitch, a passed ball or wild pitch on strike three, or catcher's interference.
2007-06-29 12:31:51 · answer #5 · answered by Richard E 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
No. By MLB rule, only a 9-inning no-hitter or perfect game counts. Separate lists of "unofficial" perfect games are kept, though (less than 9 innings or lost in extra innings).
2007-06-29 12:02:20 · answer #6 · answered by pob14 4 · 1⤊ 0⤋
it would be deemed a no-hitter, but not a perfect game. a perfect game would require for every single batter he would've faced to get out without any types of walks for 9 innings. So a no-hitter, yes. Perfect game? no.
2007-06-29 12:06:17 · answer #7 · answered by Papi Grande 3 · 0⤊ 1⤋
Dean Chance actually threw a 5 or 6 inning no-hitter in. . .1965? 1966? It's sanctioned as a perfecto even though it was short.
2007-06-29 12:06:38 · answer #8 · answered by Sarrafzedehkhoee 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
NO!! He will be credited with a win IF his team is ahead at the time the game is called. He will NOT be credited with either a perfect or no hit game because he did not pitch the full nine innings.
Chow!!
2007-06-29 12:02:33 · answer #9 · answered by No one 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
They changed the rules maybe 8 or 10 years ago. A no-hitter must be where the pitcher pitches the entire game, and it must be at least 9 innings.
So to answer your question: NO.
2007-06-29 11:59:17 · answer #10 · answered by introversive_guy 3 · 1⤊ 3⤋
Yes, he gets credited with a no-hitter or a perfect game and he gets a nice little Barry Bonds (asterisk) next to his name in the books.
2007-06-29 11:58:27 · answer #11 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 2⤋