I've always heard the saying that in colonial America that only "white, property owning christians" were allowed to vote. Was this a policy that was setup by individuals colonies or an agreement between all colonies? I can't find online any one defining document that states this was so for all of the colonies. Can someone help, a link to this information would be appreciated.
2007-06-28 17:12:11 · 10 answers · asked by lander 2 in Politics & Government ➔ Other - Politics & Government
Yes that is true, because the first people to reject British rule were called Quakers, and they had such strict reliogus practice that People annxed them from society. So in other words they were the first "colonists" and the policy stuck.
2007-06-28 17:21:06 · answer #1 · answered by singleman_dave 2 · 0⤊ 1⤋
Because voting was intended to be open to the citizens of the country, and owning property should not be a requirement of being a citizen. Generally it was thought that by eliminating the non-property owners that you keep the "riff-raff" out, and wouldn't corrupt the voting system, but as places became more urbanized there was more rental and leasing, and so you could be an upstanding citizen without necessarily "owning" property.
2016-05-22 02:58:50 · answer #2 · answered by ? 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Constitutional Amendments
http://www.usconstitution.net/constam.html
2007-07-02 12:25:54 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
all the colonies and then states had property requirements when just about every white male had some degree of property,wealthy or poor,some even suggested wealth requirements as well.But still didn't set up for some reason.
2007-06-28 17:43:45 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
This should help. It was odd that only white men were allowed to vote when the very piece of paper our country was founded around stated that " We hold these truths to be self evident that all men are created equal...." I guess only white men were equal though.
2007-06-28 18:00:40 · answer #5 · answered by Stephanie is awesome!! 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I thought it was males, not Christians. I do know that in Texas if you were catholic you got a tract of land. Many converted to get the land.
2007-06-28 17:16:02 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
no! It should be only for people proven to have an IQ!
think of this:
You need a test and a license to drive, you need a license to fish, but any idiot can vote!
...and ignorant people can be "persuaded" by some politicians by the way they make them "feel" TO VOTE FOR THEM, instead of what they are all about...so people will vote with their feelings instead of thinking!
so if it was up to me, there would be a basic "current events" test in the entrance of the voting places, where everyone would be required to take that test AND pass it, in order to be allowed to vote, sparing us from idiots making numerical differences at the time of the votes been counted!
2007-06-28 17:27:59 · answer #7 · answered by Krytox1a 6 · 0⤊ 2⤋
http://law.enotes.com/everyday-law-encyclopedia/voting-rights
2007-06-28 17:18:27 · answer #8 · answered by truth seeker 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
yes
2007-06-28 17:33:02 · answer #9 · answered by ♥♥♥♥ 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
It seemed to work well, we should really consider going back to something similar.
2007-06-28 17:17:28 · answer #10 · answered by takeashot30 4 · 0⤊ 2⤋