Why did the nazis use their chemicals in WW2?
They were using em in gas chambers.
Sense the nazis violated every warfare law, then why didn;t they use chem. anyways?
2007-06-28 08:33:46 · 9 answers · asked by Anonymous in Arts & Humanities ➔ History
You need stationary targets like trenches for gas warfare, which meant that the moving fronts of WWII were the worst place to use them. They also had plenty of veterans who remembered the gas of WWI and the backlash against that use would have been very violent. At 89 my neighbour still reacted with horror when telling me how he watched his friends cough up their lungs, the Germans did the same.
Besides, it was against the war rules and a good part of the Werhmacht and their officers still held to those rules.
2007-06-28 09:40:05 · answer #1 · answered by Cabal 7 · 2⤊ 0⤋
Gas was not very successful as a weapon.
It could only be used in trench warfare where the armies were static and even then if the wind changed direction it could blow back at you and it made it impossible to occupy the captured ground immediately.
WW2 was more of a war of movement.
2007-06-28 18:05:02 · answer #2 · answered by brainstorm 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
The treaty of Versailles, which ended WWI also set in place rules for warfare, one of which was the banning of the Use of Chemical weapons like mustard gas.
This was then Expanded by the Geneva Convention and warfare protocols.
2007-06-28 08:57:28 · answer #3 · answered by Shai Shammai 2 · 0⤊ 1⤋
Fro my studies on WW2 and Hitler, an comment was made that since Hitler was exposed to gas in ww1 nad hospitalized, he thought it cowardly for real soldiers to use and was deathly afraid of it.
2007-06-29 07:59:47 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
There effectiveness was limited, and their vulnerability to attacks against them were higher than those of the allies- westernly winds put them down wind of any attacks. During WWI airplanes could not bomb Berlin, but in WWII they could.
2007-06-28 09:01:45 · answer #5 · answered by glenn 6 · 1⤊ 0⤋
It was a violation of the rules of combat (Treaty of Versailles and later, the Geneva Convention) and they were afraid it might be used against them. It's one thing to use them against an oppressed minority, and another thing to have it used against you.
2007-06-28 09:00:36 · answer #6 · answered by John B 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Nazi's wasn't in power in WW I first of all. second couldn't ban nuclear weapons when they were only in the planning stages the manhatten project was started on 12-6-1941.
2007-06-28 15:24:25 · answer #7 · answered by tyree_67 2 · 1⤊ 2⤋
Zyklon B in many of the concentration camps doesn't count?
2007-06-29 11:49:58 · answer #8 · answered by sirbobby98121 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Why weren´t nukes banned?
2007-06-28 08:58:01 · answer #9 · answered by Señor Spok 1 · 0⤊ 5⤋