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3 answers

The impulse could be zero if the time were zero (duh)

or

if the force changed directions, so that the force at later times canceled the force at earlier times resulting in no net impulse. Remember, impulse (like force) is a vector.

2007-06-28 07:17:01 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 1 2

Well, impulse is defined as the integral of force. So do the integral of a non-zero force and see if it is zero. The only way it'll be zero is if like Bekki said the time is zero, which means you'll be doing the integral from 0 to 0, in which case you shouldn't even bother doing the integral. True that your net impulse could be zero if the force changed directions resulting in a net force of zero, but that defeats the purpose of your question. Even then your instantaneous impulses will be non-zero.

2007-06-28 07:35:11 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Impulse is defined as the change in momentum. In order to change momentum a net force must act on the object to change its velocity. If Impulse is zero, it implies that momentum is constant. This would mean that velocity is also a constant, thus net force must be zero. While there may be more than one non-zero forces acting on the object, the vector sum of those forces (what we really care about any way) must be zero to maintain a constant velocity and a constant momentum.

Of course, if the time frame is zero, impulse must be zero. This would defeat the purpose of your question though.

2007-06-28 08:12:40 · answer #3 · answered by msi_cord 7 · 1 0

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