How is the use of "executive privlege" (a theoretical power at best) any excuse to not follow the laws of the land? Since one of GWB's major campaign platforms was that he was a man of the people, should he not be subjected to the same standards of law as the rest of us?
This seems to be an egregious abuse of power on his part. I'm sure I will get people on here flaming the boards because they blindly follow the GOP, regardless of the legality of their actions, but how can any Republican back this action?
2007-06-28
07:10:58
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4 answers
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asked by
Timmy G
2
in
Politics & Government
➔ Politics