2007-06-27 16:15:58 · 2 answers · asked by rey2boy 1 in Politics & Government ➔ Law & Ethics
The answer above is correct as to the ex post facto part of the question, but omits the bill of attainder explanation. A bill of attainder is an act of a legislature that declares that someone or a group of people have commtted a crime and should be punished. They're unconstitutional in the United States.
2007-06-28 13:17:54 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
That means that you can't enact a new law and make it effective against anything that occured previous to the enaction of the law. So, if there's no law against littering on Monday, when I throw my cup down on the sidewalk, then I can't be charged with the crime period. Even if a law against littering is enacted on Tuesday, it can't be applied to me because my act occurred before the law was enacted.
2007-06-27 16:21:21 · answer #2 · answered by cyanne2ak 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋