Either Biblical or Secular?
2007-06-27 15:25:30 · 7 answers · asked by Anonymous in Education & Reference ➔ Words & Wordplay
Main Entry: for·ni·ca·tion
Pronunciation: "for-n&-'kA-sh&n
Function: noun
: consensual sexual intercourse between two persons not married to each other.
There isn't really a difference between secular and Biblical definitionions of the word, but it is commonly used in the Bible and is considered a sin, and thus has more negative connotations than other words you could use to describe the same thing...
2007-06-27 15:36:35 · answer #1 · answered by KJohnson 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Then what about the definition of the work F*CK - which stands for "Fornication Under Consent of the King"...
2007-06-27 15:35:36 · answer #2 · answered by kr_toronto 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Good question.
Having sex before marriage is fornication.
If a single man/woman have sex with an other who is not married they r both fornicating. But if a married man /woman is having sex with a single man/woman ,he/she is committing adultery and he/she is fornicating respectively.
2007-06-27 15:43:25 · answer #3 · answered by Analyst 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Roman prostitutes hung out under the arches of the fornices - take it from there!
2007-06-27 15:29:19 · answer #4 · answered by FlyGirl24 6 · 3⤊ 0⤋
The act by which life is created, but performed outside the bounds of marriage.
2007-06-27 15:29:21 · answer #5 · answered by old lady 7 · 0⤊ 1⤋
having sex when you are not married at all is fornication. having sex with someone other than your spouse when you are married is adultery.
2007-06-27 15:28:39 · answer #6 · answered by Fowl Language 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Having sex without being married
2007-06-27 15:34:47 · answer #7 · answered by Icyelene R 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋