No, just take a_n = (-1)^n. It's bounderd because for every n |a_n| <=1. (actually, =1)., But it's terms are -1, 1, -1, 1.....so that it oscillates and therefore diverges.
What is true is that every bounded sequence of real numbers (or even of vectors in R^n, or of complex numbers) contains a convergent subsequence. This is known as Bolzano Weierstrass Theorem. In the case of (-1)^n, there's a subsequence that converges to 1 and another that converges to -1.
2007-06-28 03:48:03
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answer #1
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answered by Steiner 7
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No. S_n=1 if n is prime, otherwise =0 does not converge.
To see if a sequence converges, form two auxiliary sequences:
A_1=the largest number that is less than all of the S_1,S_2,S_3,...
A_2=the largest number that is less than all of the S_2,S_3,S_4,...
A_3=the largest number that is less than all of the S_3,S_4,S_5,...
and so on.
B_1=the smallest number that is greater than all of the S_1,S_2,S_3,...
B_2=the smallest number that is greater than all of the S_2,S_3,S_4,...
B_3=the smallest number that is greater than all of the S_3,S_4,S_5,...
and so on.
The A series will be an nondecreasing series and the B series will be nonincreasing. If they converge to the same value, the original S series converges, otherwise it doesn't.
For example, suppose the series S={-1,1,-1,1,-1,...}
then A={-1,-1,-1,...}-->-1
and B={1,1,1,...}--> 1
So S doesn't converge.
On the other hand, suppose the series
S={1,-1/2,1/3,-1/4,...}
then
A
={-1/2,-1/2,-1/4,-1/4,...}-->0
and
B
={1,1/3,1/3,1/5,1/5...}-->0
So S converges to 0.
2007-06-27 11:22:04
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answer #2
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answered by Anonymous
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No, a bounded sequence may oscillate, such as
{1, -1, 1, -1, ...}
2007-06-27 11:21:41
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answer #3
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answered by fcas80 7
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No
Here's your counterexample:
-1,1,-1,1,...
2007-06-27 11:22:08
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answer #4
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answered by whitesox09 7
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