It is really a question to an answer, here it is:
http://i97.photobucket.com/albums/l216/2RIP/ph.jpg
When Ep = -Ek , why is the kinetic energy being subtracted by 0 besides the fact that it will later in the question remove the negative sign. Are there any supporting evidence for doing this? Please explain.
2007-06-26
19:50:00
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2 answers
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asked by
Anonymous
in
Science & Mathematics
➔ Physics
I guess what i'm trying to ask is the purpose of the negative kinetic energy when it can just remain positive.
2007-06-26
20:18:32 ·
update #1