my head hurts.
2007-06-26 09:11:38
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answer #1
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answered by Cheryl W 4
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No, the inflection point is where the second derivative is zero...
y = xe^(-x)
y' = e^(-x) - xe^(-x)
y'' = -e^(-x) - e^(-x) + xe^(-x)
y'' = e^(-x)*(-2+x)
this is zero at x=2 since e^(-x) is never zero (it can approach in the limit as x->inf, but is never EQUAL to zero...
inflection point at x=2.
2007-06-26 09:46:47
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answer #2
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answered by Anonymous
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Take first derivative and second derivative
y' = x(-e^-x) + e^-x(1) Chain Rule
y'' = x(e^-x) + -e^-x(1) + -e^-x
= x(e^-x ) - 2e^-x
= (x-2) (e^-x)
set equal to zero
x = 2
y = 2(e^-2) or y = .27 so point of inflection is (2,.27)
2007-06-26 09:25:51
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answer #3
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answered by gfulton57 4
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inflection point are where the slope is zero
`y= -xe^-x
let `y = 0
x = 0
2007-06-26 09:16:44
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answer #4
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answered by koki83 4
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According to http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Inflection_point
You will need to take the second derivative of your equation and find the point at which it changes sign (propably when the second derivative = 0 )
2007-06-26 09:14:53
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answer #5
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answered by rscanner 6
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It does not have a point of inflection since it is always concave downwards. It never changes its concavity.
2007-06-26 09:24:54
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answer #6
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answered by ironduke8159 7
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The secon derivative of your equation is:
f"(x)=(e^-x)-2e^-x
if you equate to zero and resolve
x=2
f"(x)=2/(e^2)
2007-06-26 09:27:25
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answer #7
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answered by ΛLΞX Q 5
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huh
2007-06-26 09:11:43
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answer #8
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answered by Git-r-done fan 3
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e=mc2
2007-06-26 09:12:46
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answer #9
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answered by philly_9112003 1
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make me!
2007-06-26 09:11:17
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answer #10
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answered by Sounds of Ed's football game 3
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