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What is the single discount equivalent to a discount series of 40% and 20%?
Options are: (1) 50%, (2) 52%, (3) 48%, (4) 55%

2007-06-26 01:04:52 · 7 answers · asked by Anonymous in Science & Mathematics Mathematics

7 answers

Start at 100
Take 40% off and you are left with 60
take 20% off 60 (12) and you are left with 48
So the single discount is 52. (100-48)

2007-06-26 01:08:19 · answer #1 · answered by welcome news 6 · 0 0

A discount series presumably means a first discount of 40% on price x and then a second discount of 20% on the discounted price. If so, we can write

Total discount = 40 + (100 - 40) x 20/100

= 40 + 60 x 20 / 100 = 40 + 12 = 52 percent.

2007-06-26 01:17:59 · answer #2 · answered by Swamy 7 · 0 0

40% and 20%?

after the first discount price=60/100=.60
after the second discount price=(80/100)(60/100)=.48
if the original cost=1, we have a total discount of 1-.48=.52

so % of discount=.52*100=52%
(2) 52% is right

2007-06-26 22:42:57 · answer #3 · answered by Sumita T 3 · 0 0

If you get a 40% discount off of full price (100%),

.40 * 1.00 = .40

you are paying only 60%. If you take an additional 20%, that only comes off the 60%.

.20 * .60 = .12

you only get an additional 12%

40% + 12% = 52%

2007-06-26 01:08:49 · answer #4 · answered by El Gigante 4 · 0 0

Of course the effective discount is 52%

2007-06-26 23:38:58 · answer #5 · answered by thinker 4 · 0 0

Let x = base amount; d = discount

1st discount:
d = x * 40%
d = 0.4x

2nd discount:
d = 20% * (x - [ x * 40%])
d = 20% * (x - 0.4x)
d = 20% * 0.6x
d = 0.12x

Sum of 1st and 2nd discounts:
d = 0.4x + 0.12x
d = 0.52x

The answer therefore is option (2) or 52%.

2007-06-29 23:10:37 · answer #6 · answered by Jun Agruda 7 · 2 0

Let original value of item = $100.

40% off : Item = $60

Further 20% off: Item = $48

Therefore, the end result has the equivilant of 52% off.

2007-06-26 01:08:54 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

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