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British = Anglo-Saxon?
Irish = Celtic?

2007-06-25 23:21:33 · 10 answers · asked by Anonymous in Social Science Anthropology

10 answers

The term British means someone from Britain which could mean Scotland Wales or even Ireland. If you mean English vs Irish then the answer is yes. In England the native Celts were conquered first by the Romans, then by The Angles and Saxons after the Romans left England. The Anglo-Saxons were in turn conquered by the Normans who were descended from a mix of Norwegian(viking), Celtic ( in Brittany and Normandy), and Frankish ancestors.

In Ireland especially in the southwestern counties the population has had little in the way of outsiders joining the population and as such the Irish are truly "Celtic" in their origin. This is less so true in other ares of Ireland especially in the area known as Ulster which saw a large influx of settlers Sent there by Great Britain, primarily from Scotland, in an effort to " breed out the Irish " as it were. Also areas along the eastern coast saw many Viking raids and settlements and in these areas the population carries this influence.

2007-06-27 00:41:17 · answer #1 · answered by grishnak 2 · 0 0

The Irish, Scottish, and Welsh are mainly Celtic with a an infusion of Germanic blood from the Norse vikings (From Scandinavia).

The English however are mainly Anglo-Saxon and Norse, the Saxon invaders pretty much exterminated the Celtic inhabitants of England and so the amount of Celtic blood in an English person is negligable. Danes and Norwegian heavily settled England, so they have a large amount of Scandinavian blood too. I'd say your average English person is 2% Celtic, 48% Anglo-Saxon, 30% Danish, and 20% Norwegian.

That's why the modern English are never referred to as a Celtic people but rather a Germanic people. Only the Irish, Welsh, and Scottish are considered Celtic.

2007-06-26 04:17:26 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Celt lives in the Island of Ingla Terra(Latin for angular land).Roman had hard time keeping Celtic barbarian invasion so they invited Saxon(seiksin Gr.) from actual German, who were a warrior tribe.


Saxons easily displace the Celt and Rome thank them by giving them more land until they became an unwanted,invited guess and kick out them Roman.

Saxons were very cruel, like Nazi German they commit mass population murder and rarely rape Celt women to keep them as wife. They usually murder or displace everybody.England was open to so much German immigration that they didn't need Celt women for breading.

After them came the Angles,also Germanic, the Viking who mostly stay in the north of Scotland, the Dans, the Normans who are a mixture of Germanic Viking and Frankish from France.
England was completely germanized but during the 19th century, attracted by industrialization many Irish catholic came to England and slowly celticize England again.

Many french protestant immigrated to England during the 100 years war against the Huguenots and many french aristocrat came to England after the fall of Louis 16Th in France.There is also many Greek, Italian and french who recently came after the war.

That make the question of racial purity useless, there is no such thing.

2007-06-26 04:54:29 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Yes.

When Rome invaded the British ILES circa 4 B.C., the islands were already inhabited.

The Romans conquered the southern half of England, but never went to Ireland.

The inhabitants of Ireland were already present when the first Anglo, Saxons, and Jutes colonized the English Islands. So the Irish were of a different ethnic stock than the English and spoke a different unrelated language.

2007-06-26 03:29:25 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 1 1

Sometimes this is the case. Often it is not. A huge portion of the Irish population will be of Anglo-Saxon decent. A huge portion of British people will be of Celtic decent. A large amount of people will be of mixed decent.
It is true that on average there are more Celts in Ireland than Britain.

2007-06-25 23:29:46 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 2 0

Yes, British men DO have different ancestors. The Angles and Saxons were Germanic tribes. Celtic is a different tribe altogether. But the WELSH are the TRUE British because they are descended from the Brythonic original inhabitants of Britain, mixed with Celtic. It is complicated. But ITS ALL WHITE, SO ITS ALL GOOD!!!

2007-06-26 03:24:48 · answer #6 · answered by michael j 1 · 1 2

It all depends if their mother or father was married to either an Irish or a Breton .

They all share the same continent "Europe"

2007-06-26 01:29:10 · answer #7 · answered by bornfree 5 · 0 0

That entire part of Europe is most probably the same background but, different time periods.

2007-06-25 23:28:39 · answer #8 · answered by cowboydoc 7 · 1 0

Definately different cutlural background , but lots of cross cutlural influence.

.

2007-06-26 00:12:49 · answer #9 · answered by Rai A 7 · 0 0

No.

2007-06-25 23:24:08 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 1 1

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