Whereas, mass (also source of a universal interaction, namely gravitation) can theoritically vary between m0 and infinity according to the energy of the particle.
2007-06-25 13:00:15 · 4 answers · asked by Anonymous in Science & Mathematics ➔ Physics
Can (e) be deduced from some other universal constants like h, G, c... , which might be more basic?
2007-06-25 14:24:45 · update #1
It's just the way things are. There's no "why" about it.
Actually, quarks have charge in units of 1/3 e -- but then they're not free particles.
2007-06-25 13:04:11 · answer #1 · answered by morningfoxnorth 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
If magnetic monopoles existed (even if just a single monopole existed in the universe), then charge must be quantized because the electromagnetic field between a magnetic monopole and any electric charge has an angular momuntum that is independent of the distance between them and only depends on the values of the magnetic and electric charges. Since quantum mechanics requires that angular momentum always be quantized, the electric and magnetic charges must therefore be quantized.
That's the best explanation we have, and many versions of GUTs predict the existence of magnetic monopoles, but they have never been detected.
2007-06-25 20:58:45 · answer #2 · answered by ZikZak 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Charge is quantized as a result of the nature of charged particles (electrons or quarks). Mass depends on the rest energy of the particle.
2007-06-25 20:05:09 · answer #3 · answered by msi_cord 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
The electron is a particle. You only can have whole electrons, and whole numbers of the elementary charge.
2007-06-25 20:06:13 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋