Paris hiltons fines cost as much as any and were probably reduced by her lawyer. For some people similar fines represent a large percentage of income. Is it just that the poor suffer more for the same crime. Needless to say they actually serve their time which she didnt do.
2007-06-25 09:29:05 · 14 answers · asked by Anonymous in Politics & Government ➔ Law & Ethics
That's how they do traffic fines in Switzerland.
2007-06-25 09:32:09 · answer #1 · answered by ©2009 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
No. If Paris Hilton committed an offense, she should pay the same amount and be treated in the same manner as any other offender would be treated within the guidelines of the law.
A coherent and fair system of justice should not assign drastically different penalties for the same crime. Putting your idea into practice would amount to government endorsed discrimination based on income.
2007-06-25 16:34:38 · answer #2 · answered by backburner001 3 · 1⤊ 0⤋
I suppose you could make an argument that a very high-income offender should pay a higher fine, to preserve the fines deterent effects. Oddly enough, though, that's not exactly 'equal treatment under the law.'
Perhaps you could base the fine on the value of the vehicle used in the offense?
2007-06-25 16:33:53 · answer #3 · answered by B.Kevorkian 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
So, you want to take more money away from people who earned it, and take less money from people who need it?
Or is this really about Paris Hilton? Paris actually suffered LESS for her crime. 45 days in jail for two drunk drivings and a suspended license? No, it should have been much more.
2007-06-25 17:28:19 · answer #4 · answered by trainboy765 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
In many states the fine is based on the blue book value of your vehicle. So those who drive expensive cars pay more. I Believe it was either 5 or 10 percent of your vehicle's worth. It is starting to catch on.
2007-06-25 17:13:27 · answer #5 · answered by jovan kambell 2 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Here's a solution....
instead of hemming and hawing about who deserves or doesn't deserve to pay more money, for the same offense....
Don't choose to break the law. Then you won't have a problem.
I don't think it would be fair to charge different people different amounts for doing the exact same thing. Punishment should fit the offense, not the social standing.
2007-06-25 16:33:04 · answer #6 · answered by nottashygirl 6 · 5⤊ 0⤋
Why should I have to pay more for a fine just because I make more money than you?
In that case, since you make less, your driving time should be limited so we have less cars on the road.
That's the most ridiculous thing I've heard today.
weeder
2007-06-25 16:35:25 · answer #7 · answered by weeder 6 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Can't we all just obey the law?
No. Fining according to income would be the same as handing out jail time according to sex..
Oh....wait. That's already happening with all the woman/boy sex/rape stuff.
2007-06-25 17:06:49 · answer #8 · answered by MIKE F. 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Going to try and make this fairly simple---there are laws--you break them , you pay the fines.
are there inequities In the law and how the punishments are hands out---You bet !!!
There is nothing you and I can do about that--the system is too large and too corrupt --As my Father used to say---Nuff said !!!!!.
2007-06-25 16:42:58 · answer #9 · answered by robert c 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I've always thought that too.
For somebody making 30,000 a year, it's much different to get a $400 fine than somebody making $1.5 million a year.
2007-06-25 16:32:29 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋