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Why did Coleridge change the end to "The Eolian Harp"?

2007-06-25 04:07:35 · 1 answers · asked by copper_doug 1 in Arts & Humanities Poetry

1 answers

To carry out her moral function properly thus demands a reproof of Coleridge's pantheism, which has wandered too far afield from orthodox values and actually threatens the domestic sphere by gesturing too far beyond it. Of course, this is still a rhetorical posturing: the female voice is a construct which forces Coleridge yet once more to back away from the doctrinal border he crosses only tentatively and momentarily. We never read a representation of Sara actually speaking; we read the speaker's account of her response, a response which, like the boiling milk, causes a kind of fall from the poetic heights, a shutting down of the possibilities of perception, closing the prison doors again:
"But thy more serious eye a mild reproof
Darts, O belovèd Woman! nor such thoughts
Dim and unhallowed dost thou not reject,
And biddest me walk humbly with my God.
Meek Daughter in the family of Christ!"

Read this essay closely:

http://home.socal.rr.com/victorianwidow/coleridge.htm

2007-06-25 05:02:19 · answer #1 · answered by ari-pup 7 · 0 0

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