See: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Infinite_product
Each represents one part of an infinite product.
For example, if we have a set of numbers a(i,j), with two subscripts i,j between 1 and n, then this product:
http://cheeser1.slyip.com/interspace/prod.gif
represents the product of all possible a(i,j). With two subscripts, you'd want two products. By the way, this double-product is the determinant of an n x n matrix.
Another example: http://cheeser1.slyip.com/interspace/prod2.gif
Notice here that you don't need subscripts. This is simply a product defined over all primes p and all primes q. The product works out to be 0, of course.
2007-06-24 20:56:23
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answer #1
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answered by сhееsеr1 7
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Similar to taking the sum of a set of numbers, the "capital pi notation" takes the multiplication of a set of numbers.
"PI" (1+1/x) from x = 2 to 4 is (1+1/2)*(1+1/3)*(1+1/4)
So now lets say you have:
"PI""PI" (1-1/y)*(1+1/x) where the first PI is y from 7 to 8 and the second PI is x from 2 to 4, you execute the x (inner) PI first....
"PI"(1-1/y)(1+1/2)(1+1/3)(1+1/4)
now execute the other "PI":
(1-1/7)(1+1/2)(1+1/3)(1+1/4) * (1-1/8)(1+1/2)(1+1/3)(1+1/4)
it is hard to explain without using the actual notation, but I hope this helps!
2007-06-25 03:57:53
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answer #2
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answered by sharky.mark 4
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Since Pi is undefined, its square (product of a Pi multilied by Pi) will also be undefined but for most of the practical purposes, we can 3.1416 as the value of pi and hence
3.1416 x 3.1416 = 9.86965...= 9.8697 for most of practical purposes.
2007-06-25 03:37:48
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answer #3
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answered by Swamy 7
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i have never heard of capital pi's.
anyways, u multiply 3.14 times 3.14 to get a product of pis.
3.14 * 3.14 = 9.8596
2007-06-25 03:36:58
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answer #4
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answered by Anonymous
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n
Î f(i) = f(1)*f(2)*f(3)*f(4)* . . . f(n)
i=1
times
n
Î g(i) = g(1)*g(2)*g(3)*g(4)* . . . g(n)
i=1
equals
f(1)*f(2)*f(3)*f(4)* . . f(n)g(1)*g(2)*g(3)*g(4)* . . g(n)
equals
n
Î f(i)g(i)
i=1
2007-06-25 03:50:00
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answer #5
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answered by Helmut 7
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