2007-06-24 06:39:47 · 9 answers · asked by hollambyf 1 in Politics & Government ➔ Law & Ethics
In the US? Yes, absoluetly. Before the taxpayers foot the bill for care the person must spend his/her own money.
My mother died from senile dementia after suffering with it for 8 years. The final 6 years she was in a dementia care facility. As the person in charge of her affairs I spent over $300,000 of her money on her treatment and care.
2007-06-24 07:03:17 · answer #1 · answered by Yak Rider 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
We are going through this right now with my dad. To be on Title 19 (State/government pays) you have to surrender a good portion of your assets, which includes your house. If the person with dementia has a spouse, the spouse can live in the house, but upon its sale the government gets the money. Same with savings, 401K, social security income, pensions etc.
Care costs so much that you'd have to sell the house to pay for it eventually anyway.
2007-06-25 09:27:34 · answer #2 · answered by Gevera Bert 6 · 1⤊ 0⤋
If the treatment they required depended on money, then why not?
Either have a house and not benefit from it because you are senile or sell the house, obtain a cure and have a happy life.
materialistic things dont matter when it comes to health.
So, to answer your question no one should be forced by another to sell the house, but if this is the only way to get a cure , then so be it!
2007-06-24 11:06:58 · answer #3 · answered by Just me 4 · 1⤊ 1⤋
Unfortunately the answer is yes but i found out that if they had done this before dementia set in they could have signed their house and goods over to a relative and they wouldn't have to sell property. That way local council has to foot the bill for care.in scotland
2007-06-26 04:48:33 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
Depends on the country, but in both the UK and the USA, yes. In both countries, you only receive state aid if your total assets are below a certain limit. Therefore, to receive state benefits you must first sell your own and use the money up.
2007-06-24 06:42:10 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 2⤊ 0⤋
Yes, they can. It is not a direct thing, but if they have assets that are worth too much to qualify for any type of aid, then they must sell or forfeit that aid. I see it happen all the time.
2007-06-24 07:09:26 · answer #6 · answered by cyanne2ak 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
in the uk yes they can, if a person has over a certain amount of money either in the bank or in assets then that money has to be used to pay for the care they receive if they have to go into a care home, so if their money is their home then the home will be sold.
2007-06-24 06:44:38 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 3⤊ 1⤋
unfortunately yes they can, despite having paid tax and stamp for years to cover just this eventuality
2007-06-24 19:53:47 · answer #8 · answered by vdv_desantnik 6 · 1⤊ 0⤋
probably but it would be wrong,
2007-06-26 22:54:36 · answer #9 · answered by Anne T 2 · 1⤊ 1⤋