Is there any difference in meaning bewteen the following?

Question

"I have once been there."

"I have been there once."

Answer 1

No, although the second one is more familiar and, seemingly, flows better--just the rhythm of the sound when you say it aloud or to yourself.

Also, the first splits the verb, although in many phrases and idioms, that no longer is a big deal.

Answer 2

I would suggest the first sentence is not one that would be used by a native English speaker. It follows a format that suggests to me a non-native English speaker was trying to say, "I was there once."

"I was there once." uses the simple past tense of the verb and clearly places the action in the past; the action is completely over.

"I have been there once." uses the passive form of the present perfect tense, and leaves open the possibility the speaker may go "there" again.

Answer 3

The meaning is identical, although the first one might not be gramatically correct.