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I know that the answer is pi/8 -1/4ln(2) and that this answer is obtained by means of integration by parts(or maybe not). However, I can't figure out how to arrive at this answer. Can someone please give me some direction? Thanks.

2007-06-24 03:10:47 · 3 answers · asked by Jay J 1 in Science & Mathematics Mathematics

3 answers

trying...
IBP yes.
Let u = arctan(x²) ; du = 2x/(1+x^4)dx
dv = x dx ; v = ½x²

∫ x arctan(x²) dx = ½x²arctan(x²) - ∫x³/(1+x^4)dx
= ½x²arctan(x²) - ¼ln (1+x^4)

at x = 0, everything is zero
at x = 1, it is ½arctan(1) - ¼ln2 = π/8 - ¼ln2.
That is also the answer when the definite integral is evaluated from 0 to 1.

2007-06-24 03:26:55 · answer #1 · answered by Alam Ko Iyan 7 · 2 0

Let u = x², du = 2x dx.
When x = 0, u = 0 and when x = 1, u = 1
So we have to compute
1/2 *∫(0..1) arctan u du.
We do ∫(0..1) arctan u du
by parts:
Let U = arctan u dV = du
dU = du/(1+u²) V = u
So ∫ (0..1)arctan u du = u arctan u(0..1) - ∫(0..1) u du/(1+u²)
= π/4 - ln(2)/2.
Since there was a 1/2 in front of the substituted integral,
the final answer is π/8 - ln(2)/4.

2007-06-24 15:49:53 · answer #2 · answered by steiner1745 7 · 0 0

let us put x^2 = t

the xdx = dt/2

at x = 1 t = 1 and x= 0 t = 0

so we need integral (arc tan t)/2 from 1 to 0

you should be able to proceed

2007-06-24 10:33:16 · answer #3 · answered by Mein Hoon Na 7 · 0 1

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