It depends on whether both are participating actually!! If you are the instigator then it is "making love to".
If it is a mutual agreement and both are amorous at the the same time then it is "making love with"!
Either way it is fun!!
2007-06-23 13:28:45
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answer #1
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answered by Anonymous
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I am not real sure. I think it is sort of a gender thing. A man makes love to a woman and a woman makes love with a man. I am not sure if this is correct or not but that is the context I have always heard the statements used.
2007-07-01 11:40:44
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answer #2
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answered by don n 6
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Make love with
2007-06-29 14:18:58
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answer #3
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answered by Red 1
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Both are correct, depending on the action taking place. If only one is the active doer, then he or she "makes love" to the other; but if both parties actively do the action, then both are making or "make love" with each other.
2007-06-27 18:11:37
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answer #4
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answered by Basang Sisiw 3
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I think it should be make love with. So that the two of you are making love with each other.
Make love to seems like the partner is passive.
2007-06-29 01:44:12
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answer #5
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answered by boyplakwatsa.com 7
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This depends on the situation. If you're talking to your lover, then saying that you want to make love to whomsoever is appropriate. If, however, you're giving a post-coital review to your buddies, then you've made love with so-and-so.
I would advise against the latter and suggest more of the former. ;)
2007-06-27 22:59:24
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answer #6
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answered by chick2lit 5
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I would assume make love with. Because make love to implies that "making love" is more of a single party action.
2007-07-01 15:52:27
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answer #7
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answered by peaches_bd 1
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I was making with love with her sound better , its more like your regular lover , as I was making love to a woman , Like a girl from the bar .
2007-06-29 13:24:24
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answer #8
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answered by Gentleman 7
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make love to
2007-07-01 18:13:49
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answer #9
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answered by quietriot;;(anti-jonas) 3
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make love with
2007-07-01 16:09:50
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answer #10
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answered by ctsnowmiss 4
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