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i mean did they listen to the same type of music back in the day. did they wear the same kind of higher class clothing
like the white curly wigs and high socks and such

2007-06-23 11:02:44 · 4 answers · asked by crystal 3 in Arts & Humanities History

4 answers

Medieval England stretched from 1066, the year in which William, Duke of Normandy, won the crown at the Battle of Hastings, until 1485, when Henry Tudor defeated Richard III and became Henry VII.

In 1066, Spain was under the rule of Arabs, as it had been since AD 711. In 1066, a Spanish Christian hero known as El Cid might have been alive and trying to reconquer Spanish provinces. In 1492, Ferdinand and Isabella, rulers of a united Spain, conquered Granada from the last Arab ruler of a Spansh province.

They did listen to the same kind of music. They wore the same kinds of clothes. The music was either church music, as in Gregorian chants. Or it was a dance music that is interesting and pleasing to me, but might seem strange to you. In that age, they did not wear curly wigs or tight stockings: That's so eighteenth century! They wore heavy brocaded robes that were hard to keep clean, got encrusted with dirt, and smelled. There was no dry cleaning in those days.

2007-06-23 11:20:02 · answer #1 · answered by steve_geo1 7 · 1 0

The difference are big. About the white curly wigs that was in the Baroque times, not in the medieval. During those times, England had their own type of clothing, kinda detailed but not as much as Spain. The music are not the same because the instruments were unique, in Spain they used a guitar while in England they played the lute, mandolin, etc. Is a complete difference because in those times, Spain was invaded by the Arabian migrants, thanks to them they enriched the Spanish language and give good money, until the Spanish got rid of them and the country fell apart in economy. In England they lived with Ireland and Scotland. Medieval studies between those two countries are long and hard to analyze.

2007-06-23 19:25:39 · answer #2 · answered by . 5 · 1 0

Probably the biggest difference was that Spain was Muslim in the Middle Ages.

2007-06-23 18:08:05 · answer #3 · answered by Theodore H 6 · 0 0

just a part of Spain:Cordoba

2007-06-23 18:19:28 · answer #4 · answered by iulius c 1 · 0 0

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