I have to turn this homework problem in by Monday! Please help! Hurry!
2007-06-23
06:11:32
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5 answers
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asked by
Scythian1950
7
in
Science & Mathematics
➔ Mathematics
There IS an explicit expression for the indefinite integral. Don't say it can't be done.
2007-06-23
06:12:46 ·
update #1
Frank, the placement of the parathenses is the way I've got it. Your suggestion changes the problem.
2007-06-23
06:52:07 ·
update #2
I definitely need a closer look at smci's answer, so I've extended this question.
2007-06-25
12:01:07 ·
update #3
smci, you came close. The subsitution q = 1/(1-x)² - 1 seems fruitful, but had the integral been √(1-(1/(1-x)² - 1)²), it would have led to a simpler result, not far from what you've done. However, because it's √(1+(1/(1-x)² - 1)²) (see the + sign instead of the - sign), even with this substitution, it still leads to the same form of solution as suggested by Wombat below. Your effort was heroic, though, and I've spent quite a bit of time trying to figure out what went wrong.
2007-06-25
16:03:32 ·
update #4