For crimes such as larceny and robbery, the phrase "permanently deprive" is used in the definitions I found. Does this mean that a crime can only be labeled as larceny or robbery if the perpetrator has no intent to return the stolen object(s)?
If someone were to "borrow" and object of yours for temporary use and without your consent, what would it be labeled as? Theft?
2007-06-23 04:17:27 · 3 answers · asked by doomgrr 2 in Politics & Government ➔ Law & Ethics
It relates to all law,"Permanently Depriving" you of some thing which was legally your first is thieft, Same as "I didnt know you wanted it back"..Ignorance to the law is never an excuse.
The item(s) weather a penny or a mansion if not returned,IS theift Take Care x
2007-06-23 04:25:58 · answer #1 · answered by Raine 2 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Yes, the perp must have the specific intent to permanently deprive the legal owner of possession.
If someone took it temporarily without consent, it could be a "trespass to chattels" but that is a civil tort and not necessarily a crime.
2007-06-23 11:27:02 · answer #2 · answered by noble_savage 6 · 1⤊ 0⤋
No, it would not be theft either. Infact, it wouldn't be a crime, though you may be able to sue for a Tort. It would be Trespass to Chattels.
2007-06-23 11:49:32 · answer #3 · answered by cyanne2ak 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋