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Prove that (0,1] is homeomorphic to (1/2,1] by defining the homeomorphism.

2007-06-23 03:28:05 · 1 answers · asked by raja 2 in Science & Mathematics Mathematics

1 answers

Consider the function:

f: (0, 1] → (1/2, 1], f(x) = (x+1)/2

This function is bijective, with inverse f⁻¹(x) = 2x-1. Both the function and its inverse are continuous. Therefore, it is a homeomorphism between (0, 1] and (1/2, 1]. So we are done.

2007-06-23 04:08:19 · answer #1 · answered by Pascal 7 · 0 0

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