Was Rushdie granted his knighthood (by Blair's government, the queen has no say in who is to be knighted) in order to antagonise the middle east, particularly Iran? Why was the backlash not considered, at a time when relations with Iran have seldom been more strained? Was it a deliberate sabotage of the nuclear negotiations? Would this also work out to bring public favour against Iran even further, after the Iranian media portray the Queen as "the English hag"?
2007-06-23
02:05:42
·
7 answers
·
asked by
Mordent
7
in
Politics & Government
➔ Other - Politics & Government