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i will be your abhari if u tell me this answer in step wayss and properly plz tell

2007-06-22 20:52:35 · 3 answers · asked by helper 1 in Science & Mathematics Mathematics

3 answers

As A > B and C > A, it follows that B < C (unless they live under different tax regimes in different countries, eg B is a writer resident in Ireland who pays no tax, and you are comparing take-home salaries!)

BUT BY HOW MUCH?

This is trickier than it looks.

Compare

(1) B earns 80 zlotys or drachmas or whatever and A earns 96 zlotys.
(2) B earns 80 zlotys and A earns 100 zlotys.

It is in fact the former that is A earning 20% more than B (120% x B's salary) as the latter would be A earning 25% more than B (125% x B's salary).

i.e. paradoxically-sounding it may be but when A earns 20% more than B, B's percentage of A's salary is NOT 80% but (80/96) x 100% = 5/6 x 100% = 83.33333 % of A's salary.

Similarly let us note that: When A earns 10% less than C (i.e. 90% of C's salary), C's salary exceeds A's by NOT 10% but 11.1111%.

So B earns 83.333% of A's salary which is in turn 90% of C's salary.

Therefore we multiply the two percentages together to arrive at B's salary as a percentage of C's salary = 75% (5/6ths of 90)

2007-06-22 21:01:00 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

OK so A = 1.2 * B

and A = 0.9 * C

express B in terms of A

B = A / 1.2

and replace A with the representation in terms of C

B = 0.9 * C / 1.2

Therefore

B = 0.75 * C

B's salary is 75% of C's

2007-06-22 21:01:57 · answer #2 · answered by The_Ends_Of_Invention 2 · 0 0

A = 1.2B = 0.9C
B = 3C/4 = 0.75C

2007-06-22 21:06:09 · answer #3 · answered by Helmut 7 · 0 0

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