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2007-06-22 15:28:57 · 9 answers · asked by realchurchhistorian 4 in Politics & Government Law & Ethics

9 answers

Pedophilia is the in appropriate touching of a child by an adult.

Homosexuality is being attracted to another adult of the same sex.

Apples and Oranges.

2007-06-22 15:33:23 · answer #1 · answered by ♥♥The Queen Has Spoken♥♥ 7 · 2 1

Pedophilia is an unnatural or sexual act with a minor child, for the most part. Does not make any diff if you are gay or not.

2007-06-22 22:53:26 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0 1

Homosexuality is a protected sin (no matter who they have sex with).
Pedophilia isn't a protected sin yet (The homosexual promoters don't want to call child rapists, homosexuals.Even though many rape the same sex).

2007-06-22 23:49:44 · answer #3 · answered by robert p 7 · 2 1

Because being homosexual has nothing to do with molesting children. The majority of pedophiles are heterosexual.

2007-06-22 22:32:34 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 1 1

Because it's not strictly a homosexual act. A lot of pedos prey on girls.

2007-06-22 22:32:53 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 1 1

Homosexuality was NEVER part of being a pedophile!!!!!
Homesexuality is one man and one man, or one woman and another woman. A pedophile molests children!!!!!

2007-06-22 22:48:59 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 2 1

it has nothing to do with homosexuality.it is a crime against a minor or child.people can be involved in pedophilla and not be gay

2007-06-23 04:33:07 · answer #7 · answered by charlsyeh 7 · 0 1

Molesting children is not confined to single sex molesting.

2007-06-22 22:33:10 · answer #8 · answered by DonPedro 4 · 1 1

I don't know but it's still gay.

2007-06-22 22:33:26 · answer #9 · answered by Natoshea J 2 · 2 5

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