i was wondering,if time was measured in descending years;b.c-then,in ascending years;a.d.-was there ever a year zero?if so,when.and,were there letters after the #?also,who decided this?
2007-06-20 15:51:37 · 4 answers · asked by furryhigh 1 in Arts & Humanities ➔ History
bc - before Christ or really (before Ceasar in Roman times)
ad - anno domini - IN THE YEAR OF OUR LORD
Historians do not use a year zero — AD 1 is the first year or epoch of the Anno Domini era, and 1 BC immediately precedes it as the first year before the epoch. This is a problem with some calculations; so in astronomical year numbering a zero is added, and the 'AD' and 'BC' are dropped. In keeping with 'standard decimal numbering', a negative sign '−' is added for earlier years, so counting down from year 2 would give 2, 1, 0, −1, −2, and so on. This results in a one-year shift between the two systems (eg −1 equals 2 BC). However, civil usage still omits the idea of a year zero.
2007-06-20 16:07:19 · answer #1 · answered by MELANIE 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
No, think about it, it's 1 B.C., the last year in B.C. and it counts down to New Years day. At midnight the ?sundial? chimes and it's officially Jan. 1 in the first year A.D.
2007-06-20 23:04:34 · answer #2 · answered by Tovarish 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
No. This is why the change of millennia occurred at the end of 2000, not at the end of 1999.
2007-06-21 01:32:16 · answer #3 · answered by iansand 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Technically there's not.
Trent Reznor has a year zero though... heh.
2007-06-20 23:25:51 · answer #4 · answered by Liz 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋