True or false? The function f(x)=2-x is its own inverse. explain.
2007-06-20 10:46:34 · 4 answers · asked by lost 2 in Science & Mathematics ➔ Mathematics
Let's replace "f(x)" with "y" instead, because it will be easier to understand:
y = 2 - x
Add x to both sides:
y + x = 2
Subtract y from both sides:
x = 2 - y
Now replace "x" with "f(y)":
f(y) = 2 - y
This function is its own inverse, because when you solve for the other variable, you end up with a function of identical form.
2007-06-20 10:51:57 · answer #1 · answered by lithiumdeuteride 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
thank for the free points
jk
i think you could go to a math site such as mathquest.com
but im not sure if that site still work
hope i help you
2007-06-20 17:49:18 · answer #2 · answered by Salomon S 3 · 0⤊ 1⤋
Why do math? School is almost out.
2007-06-20 17:48:38 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 1⤋
uh...maybe you shouuld listen more in class
2007-06-20 17:48:37 · answer #4 · answered by Claire B 2 · 1⤊ 1⤋