2007-06-20 07:04:18 · 11 answers · asked by Anonymous in Science & Mathematics ➔ Mathematics
yes
cos it is divisible only by 1 and itself.
2007-06-20 07:06:05 · answer #1 · answered by sweet n simple 5 · 2⤊ 0⤋
Yes - a prime number is a number whose only whole number factors are itself and one. The only whole number factors of 2 are 2 and 1... so yes, it's a prime number.
2007-06-20 07:09:39 · answer #2 · answered by ♥ Dani 6 · 1⤊ 0⤋
A prime number is evenly divisible by only itself and 1.
So does 2 fit that criteria? Yup.
2007-06-20 07:07:01 · answer #3 · answered by 006 6 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Yes because its only divisible by 1 and itself (which is the definition of a prime number). :]
2007-06-20 07:07:03 · answer #4 · answered by gymdiva2003 2 · 1⤊ 0⤋
A prime number is any integer that has exactly two positive integer divisors.
The number 2 meets this criteria, but 1 doesn't.
2007-06-20 07:07:39 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
Yes. It's an integer greater than 1 that's
only divisible by 1 and itself.
2007-06-20 07:56:22 · answer #6 · answered by steiner1745 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
yes it is...=) a prime number is only divisible by one and its self
2007-06-20 07:12:39 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
yes it is. 2 is only divisible by 1 and itself.
2007-06-20 07:10:22 · answer #8 · answered by X 2 · 1⤊ 0⤋
yes its the only even prime number
2007-06-20 07:07:17 · answer #9 · answered by tony c 3 · 1⤊ 1⤋
Yes.
2007-06-20 07:07:30 · answer #10 · answered by Dave 6 · 1⤊ 0⤋