the way to do this correctly is:
(.25)^4 X (.75)^16=3.91508E-05
HOWEVER YOU AREN'T FINISHED!
you need to take into account all the different possibilites of getting 4 questions right. (i.e. you could get the first four right, or you could get the last four right, or you could get the first two right and the middle two right, etc etc etc)
[20!/(4!*16!)] *3.91508E-05 = 0.189685455
you have an 18.9685% chance of getting 4 questions right if you randomly guess
2007-06-20 02:32:19
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answer #1
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answered by walsh_patr 3
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this is a binomial probability in which there are only two possible outcomes to each event, correct or incorrect. Since there are four choices for each answer, the probability of correct is 1/4 and the probability of incorrect is 3/4. Here is the binomial probability:
C(20,4)*(1/4)^4*(3/4)^16
You need the combination component because out of the 20 questions, there are many ways to get 4 correct: maybe you'll get the first four correct, or maybe it will be the 4th, 7th, 8th, and 19th. Obviously, there are many combinations of 4 when chosen from 20.
2007-06-20 02:32:06
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answer #2
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answered by Kathleen K 7
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This is an application of the binomial distribution. There are C(20, 4) ways of picking 4 out of the 20 questions, which is 20!/(4! 16!), and each possible subset has probability (1/4)^4*(3/4)^16
The probability is 20!/(4! 16!) * (1/4)^4 (3/4)^16
2007-06-20 02:29:51
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answer #3
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answered by Jim B 2
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uestions like this are solved using the binomial distribution.
p( quessing 1 question right) = .25
p(getting 1 problem wrong) = .75
4 correct, 16 incorrect
p(exactly 4 correct) = 20C4 * .25^4 * .75^16
2007-06-20 03:55:27
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answer #4
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answered by Anonymous
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C(20,4) . (1/4)^4 . (3/4)^16 = .18968545486586659680
One more interesting thing is getting 5 correct is more
probable ;)
p(5) = .20233115185692436992
p(6) is lesser .16860929321410364160
most probable no. of correct answers is hence 5. :)
2007-06-20 14:01:09
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answer #5
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answered by Atul S V 2
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Chance of getting one correct is 1/4. So the chance of getting one wrong is 3/4
So... To get exactly 4 correct...
(1/4)^4 * (3/4)^16
**************************
Oops, yeah, I forgot the "choice" part...
20! / (16!*4!) * (1/4)^4 * (3/4)*16
2007-06-20 02:23:28
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answer #6
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answered by Mathematica 7
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The Binomial distribution has the prospect function P(x=r)= nCr p^r (a million-p)^(n-r) r=0,a million,2,.....,n the place nCr = n! / r! (n-r)! n=20 p=a million/4 r=4 (20C4)(a million/4)^4(3/4)^sixteen =0.1897 you will desire a Binomial danger table.
2016-10-18 03:23:08
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answer #7
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answered by Erika 4
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I thought it would be (20!)/(4!*16!) * (.25)^4 * (.75)^16.....
2007-06-20 02:28:42
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answer #8
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answered by Mathsorcerer 7
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