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2007-06-19 22:55:54 · 4 answers · asked by Anonymous in Social Science Economics

4 answers

price discrimination means charging different price to different consumers. Texbook example is student and senior tickets at movie theatres.

You can legally ban it, or prevent company from knowing to which group the consumer belongs.

Btw, bulk price (3 for price of 2) is not really discrimination b/c bulk package is not same product as single package.

2007-06-20 06:44:21 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

The only real market left that has rampant price discrimination is the health industry. If you go to a doctor for a broken arm, they will treat you and bill you. Say $1,000. If you have insurance, your insurance company will get a special "Negotiated" rate. Anything from 10-40% lower in price. You will get a $1,000 bill, no discounts.

The US congress and representative are "trying" to do something about this, but find it very difficult as the only reason many of them are in office is because of the large political contributions they received from the heatlh industry.

Other than that, I agree with the previous poster; it is mostly eliminated by an open economy.

2007-06-20 06:19:13 · answer #2 · answered by JJ 5 · 0 0

Usually, price discrimination IS removed from the markets. Most of the goods and services that you buy in your lifetime, you will pay the same price for as somebody else.

Price discrimination can take the milder forms of 'buy two, get one free' - so you're offering a lower unit price to preferred customers who buy more of your product.

Price discrimination could range all the way up to charging different individuals, different prices based on their appearance - extreme, but possible.

Thankfully, for the most part, price discrimination isn't present in our markets.

2007-06-19 23:25:34 · answer #3 · answered by Adam L 5 · 0 0

just steal : )

2007-06-19 22:58:05 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

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