there is no scientific evidence suggesting significant risk of negative deffects as a result of mating. Also supposing the psuedoscientific belief that it causes deffects were true, and the couple was gay or used condoms then what excuse would their be?
it is a felony in many states.
PS: this is not in regards to incest between children so don't play the "its to protect the children" card.
2007-06-19
18:05:52
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7 answers
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asked by
F your world
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Politics & Government
➔ Law & Ethics
By evidence i mean a single scientific study to confirm the belief. I do not consider hersay as vallid sorry. So far the only "evidence" anyone has is completely arbitrary and hypothetical it is not evidence from a scientific standpoint from a sheeple "i want it to be this way" standpoint sure.
the media always says whatever will be the most upsetting, disgusting, or horrifying its extremelly rare for the media to consult science.
So far every bit of "evidence" portains to multiple generations of inbreeding between immediate relatives and is hypothetical at best and thus not valid as evidence.
so basically just because you are against something it should be illegal? (im against you - i hate overbearing controlling rabid sheep - so why aren't you illegal?)
2007-06-19
19:35:56 ·
update #1