What time period did last names start developing?

Question

like what year and during what time period. Ex. renaissance, medivel, etc.

Answer 1

I suspect what you have in mind is the MODERN practice of giving hereditary surnames, which began in southern Europe around AD 1000 -- that is, the medieval period-- then spread northward (#3 below)

But that is not the first case of surnames

1) The earliest known case of established hereditary surnames was in China, where the use of family names was decreed around 2852 B.C. But there is no evidence the Chinese practice had any influence on the development of surnames elsewhere.

In the West there are two significant historical instances of surnames developing.

2) The first was at the height of the Roman Empire, but it died out toward the end. It was NOT the origin of modern European surnames; they arose again independently.

3) The "modern" use of hereditary surnames in Europe began around AD 1000 in Venice, and gradually spread across Europe through the next few centuries (though some countries, such as the Scandinavian lands, did not fully adopt the practice till the 19th century).


Good overviews of the history, including how and when surnames were adopted in various places
http://www.mayrand.org/meaning-e.htm
(includes helpful HISTORY of giving of surnames, naming practices in various countries)

See also:
http://www.searchforancestors.com/surnames/origin/

If you want a good book on the subject -not just dictionary entries but explanations of how last names developed - see if your local public library has a copy of *American Surnames* by Elsdon Coles Smith (probably in the reference section). It includes some nice discussion of HOW various types of surnames developed

Answer 2

It varies by culture and location. In my genealogy research, two of my family lines from England have had the same surname since the 1300s. The Danish line, however, didn't use a single surname until they came to the US around 1900. Before that it was all Son of.. or Daughter of...

Answer 3

Most English and West European surnames THAT ARE IN USE TODAY began during the Middle Ages. They were usually of three kinds:

1- patronymic [meaning "son of"]- Robertson, Stephenson, etc.
2- place names- could be geographic [James Lester would be somebody from the city of Leicester in England, or Herman Munster would be someone who lived in Muenster in Germany or Munster in Ireland] or it could be real specific. James Bridger could be somebody who lived close to a bridge, and the same with James Church or James Waters.
3- occupational names- James Wheeler would be the man (or descendant of a man) who made wagon wheels, and James Carpenter and James Barber the same (since barbers and doctors were the same, that's why you don't see the last name 'doctor'). Since blacksmithing was one of the most common professions in any city (farming was of course the most common profession in every country) and since blacksmiths often had many children and apprenticed their sons to themselves or other blacksmiths, the surname Smith is among the most common in every country (German: Schmidt, French: Forgeron/Bergeron/others, etc.).

NOW, that said, surnames have been used for thousands of years before that, they just died out and got recalled. All free Romans had surnames for example- it was actually their middle name (the "gens nomen" or family name).
Gaius Julius Caesar, for example- his family name was 'Julius' (meaning he was a descendant of the Jullii clan), his given name was 'Gaius' (more common than James or John), and Caesar was something we don't have called a "cognomen"- it distinguishes which branch of the family he was from. (Caesar means "hairy", which is ironic since he was bald, but it was because he had a hairy grandfather or great-grandfather who distinguished himself from the other Julii that way.)
Arabic and Hebrew and Chinese surnames are WAY more complicated and often get mistranslated. For example, we know the name of the High Priest at the trial of Jesus as Caiphas (a Roman version of the name 'Kayifa') but his name was actually Yusef bar Kayifa- or "Joseph the son of Caiphas" and that would be followed by other names. He is actually remembered by his father's given name rather than his own given name or his family's clan name.
Same with the Muslim warrior Saladin. His actual name was Salah al-Din Yusuf Ibn Ayyub which means something to the effect of "of the blessed Dinn clan this is Joseph son of Ayub", so "Yusuf" would be proper, but it's changed to Saladin by those who do not understand the naming conventions.

Answer 4

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Family_name#History

The oldest use of family or surnames is unclear. Surnames have arisen in cultures with large, concentrated populations where single names for individuals become insufficient to uniquely identify them. In many cultures the practice of using additional descriptive terms in identifying individuals arose. These descriptors might indicate personal attributes, location of origin, parentage, or clan affiliation. Often these descriptors developed into fixed clan identifications which became family names in the sense that we know them today.

In China, according to legend, family names originate with Emperor Fu Xi in 2852 BC.[1] His administration standardized the naming system in order to facilitate the census. In Japan family names were uncommon except in the aristocracy until the 19th century.

In Ancient Greece during some periods it became common to use place of origin as a part of their official identification.[2] At other times clan names and patronymic names ("son of") were also common. For example, Alexander the Great was known by the clan name Herakles (as a supposed descendant of Heracles) and the dynastic name Karanos/Caranus referring to the founder of the dynasty. In none of these cases, though, were these names considered formal parts of the person's name nor were they explicitly inherited in the manner which is common in many cultures today.

In the Roman Empire clan/family names became very standardized. At the beginning they were not strictly inherited in the way that family names are inherited in many cultures today. Eventually, though, family names began to be used in a manner similar to most modern European societies. With the gradual influence of Greek/Christian culture throughout the Empire the use of formal family names declined.[3]

By the time of the fall of the Western Roman Empire in the 5th century, family names were uncommon in the Eastern Roman (i.e. Byzantine) Empire. In Western Europe where Germanic culture dominated the aristocracy, family names were almost non-existent. They would not significantly reappear again in Eastern Roman society until the 10th century, apparently influenced by the familial affilations of the Armenian military aristocracy.[3] The practice of using family names spread through the Eastern Roman Empire and gradually into Western Europe although it was not until the modern era that family names came to be explicitly inherited in the way that they are today. Note that in the case of the English, the most accepted theory of the origin of family names in England is their introduction to the Normans and the Domesday Book of 1086.

During the modern era many cultures around the world adopted the practice of using family names, especially during the imperialistic age of Europe and particularly from the 17th to 19th centuries. However, they are unused in some cultures even today.

Answer 5

last names originated by what a person did or family. Vikings were known for for the "son" eric the red...leif ericson
peter baker was a baker in england i believe the start of it was w/ the vikings hayday

Answer 6

Where?

Some today still do not use surnames.