I work for a cabinet shop. We did some work for a lady, cabinets and a countertop. She ended up not liking the countertop that was ordered. There was a mix up with the person who took her order and her.
Anyway, she only paid part of the bill (not even half) because she was not satisfied (she just picked a price herself to pay, it didnt even cover the cabinets and labor). so I re-billed her for everything but the top, I told her I would give her the top for free. I just now got another note from her in the mail after I re-billed her for what she still owed, and she said she is not paying anymore of what she owes because she wrote paid in full in the memo part of the check and we cashed it. Is she now not responsible for paying just because she wrote paid in full on the check and we cashed it?
2007-06-19
08:47:01
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7 answers
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asked by
AJK
2
in
Politics & Government
➔ Law & Ethics