Bases loaded with two outs and the batter hits a homerun. When the umpire throws a new ball to the pitcher the defensive team appeals the play at second base and the umpire rules the batter that hit the homerun out at second on appeal for missing the base as he ran out his homerun. How many runs, if any, score on the play?
2007-06-19 01:44:50 · 14 answers · asked by Frizzer 7 in Sports ➔ Baseball
I want to hear from you Ryan P.
2007-06-19 01:45:57 · update #1
I want to hear from you Ryan R.
2007-06-19 01:48:45 · update #2
I want to hear from you Ryan R.
2007-06-19 01:49:05 · update #3
only three. since the only player that didn't touch the base was the hitter,he is the only out.
2007-06-19 01:54:52 · answer #1 · answered by q.man6219 2 · 2⤊ 0⤋
Why do so many people guess on baseball rules questions? And why do they almost always guess wrong? :-)
Three runs score, as most others have said. It's not a force out, and it's not an out made by the batter before touching first, so all runs that touch the plate before the out is recorded score.
The out is recorded at the moment of the appeal, not when the base is missed.
So all three runners score.
If it were another runner that were put out for missing a base, no runners BEHIND him score. So if it had been the runner from first that missed second, only the two runners ahead of him score. See Rule 7.
2007-06-19 04:07:02 · answer #2 · answered by pob14 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
3 runs score. The out isn't recorded until after all 3 runners have crossed the plate. If the third out is recorded due to a batter or runner missing a base, no FOLLOWING runner may score on the play, and of course the runner who missed the base is out and doesn't score, but the preceding runners' runs count.
Note that if any runner misses a base at which he could be forced out, NO runs would score on the play if that was the third out.
2007-06-19 02:37:55 · answer #3 · answered by dentroll 3 · 1⤊ 0⤋
no longer quoting the regulations, yet those could be discovered therein. a million. In such situations, what concerns is the place the ball is whilst it passes the backside -- if it touches down, then crosses above the backside, this is in honest territory, and as a result (this is the telling bit) leaves the infield in honest territory. (while if it crosses over the backside for the time of its unique flight and then lands foul, this is a undesirable ball.) as a result, honest ball, regardless the place it next touches down. If it exceeded the backside in simple terms exterior the line, then, foul ball. 2. No run. whilst the 0.33 out is recorded by utilising stress out OR by utilising the batter-runner being placed out at first base (he did no longer attain thoroughly; and specific, collectively as this appears like a stress out, by utilising the regulations it is not seen one; a great factor, yet one that each now and then concerns), a run can not score. 3. Ooh, I hate thinking related to the IFR... even though it never applies with 2 outs. No, it does not notice in ALL much less-than-2-out circumstances. There should be forceable baserunners. ...ok, this one I did look up. it is in Rule 2.00, definition of "Infield Fly". The IFR applies whilst there is below 2 outs, and runners on first and 2nd OR runners on first, 2nd, and 0.33. And it is going to likely be a fly ball and playable by utilising an infielder, interior the umpire's judgment. there's no charm allowed -- ump's call on all of it. A popped bunt attempt can not be seen an infield fly. there's a set of different situations, this is why this one is one in all those discomfort interior the neck.
2016-11-06 22:07:26 · answer #4 · answered by ? 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
3 cause the runners are awared the bases on the HR if the ball left playing territory, however they have to touch their bases. If it was inside the park HR then it is a judgement call were the other runners were when the batter runner missed second base
2007-06-19 03:40:04 · answer #5 · answered by baseballjohn48 3 · 0⤊ 1⤋
My guess would be two..... back in the 60's something similar happened in the game Harvey Haddix pitched 12 perfect innings against the Braves....in the 13 Felix Mantilla reached first on an error(I think)....with one out, Aaron walked putting Mantilla at 2nd base.....Joe Adcock next up hit a homerun (apparent) as he rounded second, he passed Aaron and was credit with a single....using this same logic....with Mantilla at 2nd base....I would say 2 runs would be allowed?????....by the way the winning pitcher was Lou Burdette who went the entire 13 innings....he recently passed away.
2007-06-19 02:29:46 · answer #6 · answered by Mickey Mantle 5 · 1⤊ 2⤋
Three, as long as the other runners hit all the bases. Only the person who missed the base would be out. The other runners would count.
Throw a loop in that question, what if one of the runners missed a base? The other team appeals the person who started on second, saying he missed third base. Would the runner on first, and the batter who hit the home run, count?
The answer is yes.
2007-06-19 01:57:38 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 2⤊ 4⤋
3 runs would count as 3 runners would have crossed the plate before the third out is recorded,as this is also not a force out only the batter runners run would not count as he is out at 2nd.The batter is credited with a single
2007-06-19 02:58:15 · answer #8 · answered by Ricky Lee 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
The situation could impact it. If it was the bottom of the ninth with the score tied, it would be considered a single, and since only one run was needed to decide the game, then just one run would be counted.
That was the logic followed in the Haddix game.
2007-06-19 03:04:56 · answer #9 · answered by llk51 4 · 0⤊ 1⤋
3 runs score
2007-06-19 02:02:38 · answer #10 · answered by Mr. E 3 · 1⤊ 0⤋