English Deutsch Français Italiano Español Português 繁體中文 Bahasa Indonesia Tiếng Việt ภาษาไทย
All categories

I hear that using a premarital agreement one can decide how much he/she should pay in the case of divorce.(like 50,000etc)

is it true?....

2007-06-18 22:42:53 · 4 answers · asked by Deep_S 1 in Family & Relationships Marriage & Divorce

So it's yes....if both agree

2007-06-18 22:54:54 · update #1

4 answers

That’s right there can be prenuptial agreement between the spouses with regards to the property sharing & alimony amount that can be informed by the parties to the family court if asked by the presiding officer/ judge. It is always desirable to settle this amount or issue out of court between the parties as during the proceedings in the court unnecessary time is wasted on this itself, resulting in more lawyers’ fee for this issue itself.

2007-06-19 01:29:46 · answer #1 · answered by vijay m Indian Lawyer 7 · 0 0

yes & no...

you can draw up a pre-nup like that, but no one under the advice of an attorney would sign a document that puts a cap on an amount...it would have to be a reasonable percentage of assets based on the entire marriage.

pre-nups more protect what you have going INTO a marriage...not what is gained WHILE married...say if oyu had a substantial savings account or investments...

2007-06-19 05:50:18 · answer #2 · answered by allrightythen 7 · 0 0

depends on who makes what and how much you have, and the judge

2007-06-19 05:56:45 · answer #3 · answered by bluelitttt 4 · 0 0

yeah

2007-06-19 05:48:33 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

fedest.com, questions and answers