The time it spends in going from 40 m/s to 60 m/s is:
a. 10 s
b. 15 s
c. 20 s
d. 25 s
2007-06-18 11:10:52 · 5 answers · asked by Anonymous in Science & Mathematics ➔ Chemistry
Under uniform acceleration, the answer is A, 10 seconds.
2007-06-18 11:17:49 · answer #1 · answered by Keith P 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Ha... The answer most people would have would be assuming that the acceleration is constant, and that v=at, so that 60 = a 30 and therefore a is 2 m/s^2, with this the answer would be something like (a) 10 seconds.
Except that an aircraft would have an increasing level of drag (drag goes up with the square of the speed), so the actual answer would probably be close to 15 second. It is impossible to be sure, as the thrust of an aircraft also varies (it usually reduces) as the speed increase.
And that is not a chemistry question, it is physics.
2007-06-18 11:21:02 · answer #2 · answered by Vincent G 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
60/30=2 soo its 2m/s
so inbetween 40 and 60 is 20 seconds
divide 20 by 2
and ur answers 10 s
2007-06-18 11:17:39 · answer #3 · answered by Hugh Jazz 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
A.
another way to look at it:
acceleration = 0 to 60 in 30 seconds = 60/30 = 2 m/s^2
V = a*t
40 m/sec = 2 m/sec^2 * (20 sec)
60 m/sec = 2 m/sec^2 * (30 sec)
30 sec - 20 sec = 10 sec.
.
2007-06-18 11:17:46 · answer #4 · answered by tlbs101 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
relies upon if the acceleration is consistent. I it ISNT you CANT calculate a minimum. in spite of if it particularly is is consistent ish acceleration then the avearge % could decide for to be predicted as 40 m/s for 35 seconds factors 1400 m
2016-11-25 22:14:47 · answer #5 · answered by ? 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋