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poland is said to be a very homogeneous country.can you please explain why?

2007-06-17 19:41:38 · 2 answers · asked by Anonymous in Science & Mathematics Geography

2 answers

Here's a quote that explains why Poland's minorities only account for about 5% of its population.

"As the Second World War began, Poland was attacked by Nazi Germany and the Soviet Union. Both totalitarian countries divided Poland and began to persecute her people. The Nazis murdered about 90% of the Polish Jews and more than a million of Catholic Poles. The Soviets also murdered a comparable number of Poles, many others experienced to concentration camps in Siberia. After this horrible period was over and World War II had ended, new boundaries were designed for Central Europe by Stalin, Churchill and Roosevelt at Yalta. Poland lost a third of its pre-WWII area which was taken over by the Soviets. As a "compensation", the allied powers handed over to Poland a large part of Germany east of the Oder and Neisse rivers. Nearly the entire population of those provinces either escaped the Red Army in 1945 or was later expelled to Germany and the territory was settled by Polish refugees from the East, who wanted to avoid Soviet rule. Also hundreds of thousands of Ukrainians were forced to leave Poland to settle in the Soviet Union. Most of the Jews who survived the Holocaust emigrated to Israel or to the USA.

Because of those migrations, contemporary Poland has practically no population of ethnic minorities - about 5% in total. Except for a few hundred thousand of Germans in Silesia and comparable numbers of Belarussians (in the Easternmost regions) and Ukrainians, all other minorities do not exceed 100,000 people.This is a situation completely different from that throughout the whole of Polish history. "

http://www.polishroots.org/genpoland/polhistory.htm

2007-06-17 19:49:52 · answer #1 · answered by ecolink 7 · 1 0

God gift

2007-06-17 19:44:15 · answer #2 · answered by B A 3 · 0 0

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