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2007-06-17 18:23:19 · 20 answers · asked by Ω allan y 6 in Arts & Humanities History

20 answers

Colonization - American Style - The Philppines 1899-1946

General Emilio Aguinaldo was assured by the Americans his country, the Philippines, would be free of Spanish rule. He declared independence (from Spain) on June 12th, 1898. The establishment of the Philippine Republic was confirmed on January 23rd, 1899.

When Spain and United States signed the treaty of Paris (to end the Spanish-American War)on December 10th, 1898 - the two countries agreed that America would possess the Philippines in exchange for $20 million. The people of the Philippines were left out of the consultation, and thus one foreign occupier was replaced by another.

Although the Americans believed the proposed Philippine government under President Emilio Aguinaldo would not be strong enough to maintain order, Aguinaldo and his forces fought with the American forces for two years when they saw the writing on the wall. Emilio Aguinaldo was captured in March, 1901. William Howard Taft was chosen for the position of Presidency and Chief Justice. The new colonial administration was then put in place.

The United States, after a transition period that began in 1934, still retained the power of national defence and foreign affairs but assured the people they would have freedom and self-reliance. The United States finally granted the Philippines full independence in July, 1946.

To answer your question, the United States colonized the Philippines as a mission of tutelage (big brother knows best), preparing the Philippines for their eventual independence.

2007-06-17 19:04:14 · answer #1 · answered by WMD 7 · 5 1

Mostly, accurate but you left out the part that General Emilio Aguinaldo established himself as a dictator and had a dictatorial government. This was just one of the other reasons why the United States government did not feel the Philippines could self-rule. There was a very strong opposition in the United States to colonizing the Philippines. Most people in the United States and in the United States Government never heard of the Philippines or even knew where it was located on a map. So how could they know about the rich natural resources here? The United States Government was fearful of European countries and Japan colonizing the Philippines, like they did in China, that the United States placed the Philippines under protectorship.

2015-05-29 05:14:39 · answer #2 · answered by Paniquimarine2 1 · 0 1

American Colonization In The Philippines

2016-11-07 23:26:03 · answer #3 · answered by ? 4 · 0 0

America, already at war, noticed that Spain was in the Philippines for more than 350 years, since 1521 in fact, and decided there must be something there of value. Thus they staged the Mock Battle of Manila on August 1898 (after we've declared independence in Cavite on June 12 of the same year), to minimize casualties on both sides (American and Spanish, we were kept out of the action) and save face for Spain, which didn't want to surrender to Aguinaldo.

After Macario Sakay and the last freedom fighters capitulated, we were colonized by the US - didn't William H. Taft serve as governor-general? Surely that was a position of power?

2007-06-19 18:25:47 · answer #4 · answered by sweetwater 7 · 1 0

Due to business interest because Americans knows that Philippines has abundance of natural resources and has many crops due to fertile soil. These crops may used by the Americans for business export. Another reason of colonization of America to Philippines is due to its location in the Pacific ocean where they can used as a prime port for trade to Asian nations.

2015-04-29 03:20:12 · answer #5 · answered by Jane 1 · 0 0

It never did, where did you get that informatin from? the philippines fought for thereown independence from Spain, much like the Cubans had in Cuba from Spain, with rebel rag tag armies, but when the US went to war with Spain in 1898, they sought to Free cuba nd the Philippines, and take Peurto Rico, guam, and Hawaii for possessions for coaling stations for there new steel navy. After the war with Spain, the philippines wanted the US to leave instantly, and th rebel army started attacking US troops, so in 1899 the US landed more troops and in 4 yrs the philipines where taken as a possession, It was a Capt Funston from Kansas who pretty much on his own, got into the Rebel head quarters and captured the rebel general alive all on his own, this stopped instantly all rebel fighting. the Philipines becaume a US possesion of sorts, mostly for a vaste naval base, and some land forces, but the US never colonized the Philipines, the Military stayed on the two major military bases and where much welcomed by the locals , when WII started the Japanese had cut off us traffic to the islands and the phhilipines fell, General Douglas MacArthur, who had been the Military Govenor of the Islands vowed to return and he did , with a large US force, with help from the locals they took all the Islands back, and the Philipines asked the US to remain as a protectorant, and this is the way it remained until the early 90s, and then all the US forces left, the big volcano hit the Island, and there Economy went straight into the crapper as they say, the Philipines went from a viable economic economy to the near bottom of the 3rd world economy status in les sthan 1 month, and have improved very little since then, but the Us never Colonized the Islands, no US civilians where brought over, and towns or cities formed for them to spread out from, all where either on the bases or worked for buisnesses in Manila .

2007-06-17 19:02:48 · answer #6 · answered by edjdonnell 5 · 3 4

The United States with victorious war against Spain assicurrono the possession of the Philippines and Cuba. The Philippines served for being present in the asietico east south and in order to control the Japanese expansion in the Pacific ...

2007-06-17 18:41:32 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0 2

At the time, it was mostly about taking it away from the Spanish to punish them for their "transgressions" in the war. And yes, the US did want a base in the western Pacific. But remember this was the 1890s. It was all about naval power. The US had just become a world power, and felt the need to have a presence in Asia to protect their interests.

2007-06-17 18:31:03 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 3 0

The U.S. obtained the Philippines, Puerto Rico and Guam from Spain in the Treaty of Paris at the end of the Spanish-American war.

2007-06-17 18:36:08 · answer #9 · answered by pipsqueekers9900 3 · 2 1

we did it because we needed a island so ships could stop and load before moving on to other Asian country's. Because Spain ruled it for 200 yrs. It is in a perfect place to control the Asian market. That is also why Japan toke it over in WW2. The plane answer was wrong because when we toke it there was not planes at that time. We used ships. OK hope it helps.

2007-06-23 06:39:13 · answer #10 · answered by videoman 3 · 0 1

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